2004 to 2017 MCQs on Higher Education System, Governance, Polity & Administartion

2004 to 2017 Questions:

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MCQs on Higher Education System, Governance, Polity & Administartion

December 2004

1. In which year the University Grants Commission was established?

(A) 1948

(B) 1944

(D) 1960

Answer c
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2. Another name of Basic Education or Nai Talim is :

(A) Compulsory Education

(B) New Education Policy

(C) Wardha Education Plan

(D) Sarva Shikshya Abhiyan

Answer c

5. The “Report on Currency and Finance” for each of the financial year in India is published by :

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Ministry of Finance

(C) Planning Commission

(D) Central Statistical Organization

Answer A

6. The idea of ‘Democratic Decentralisation’ in India was popularised by:

(A) A.D. Gorwala Committee, 1951

(B) Paul H. Appleby Committee, 1953

(C) B.R. Mehta Committee, 1957

(D) Ashok Mehta Committee, 1978

Answer C

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was a committee appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme(1952) and the National Extension Service(1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The Chairman of this committee was Balwantrai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of 'democratic decentralisation' which finally came to be known as Panchayati Raj.The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle the local problems locally and to make the people politically conscious.

7. In India, a political party is recognised as a National or Regional Party by the :

(A) President of India

(B) Election Commission of India

(C) Law ministry in consultation with the Law Commission of India

(D) Union Parliament in consultation with the State Legislatures

Answer B

8. Which of the following factor/s is/are responsible for the increase of the role of Government in Developing Countries?

(a) Economic Planning

(b) Rising expectation of people

(c) Privatization

(d) Emergence of the concept of Welfare State

Select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (d)

(C) Only (c)

(D) Only (d)

Answer A

December 2005

1. The launch of satellite channel by IGNOU on 26^th January 2003 for technological education for the growth and development of distance education is:

(A) Eklavya channel

(B) Gyandarshan channel

(C) Rajrishi channel

(D) None of these

Answer A
Eklavya Technology Channel is a distant learning joint initiative between the IIT and IGNOU. It was inaugurated by Prof. Murli Manohar Joshi, Honourable Minister, HRD, S&T and Ocean Development on 26 January 2003.
It was inaugurated by Prof. Murli Manohar Joshi, Honourable Minister, HRD, S&T and Ocean Development on 26 January 2003.
eight complete courses are being run in parallel, contributed by IIT Delhi, IIT Kharagpur and IIT Madras and are repeated in the same sequence without a break.

Transmission

The audio/video programmes produced at the EMPC are broadcast/telecast over Gyan Darshan, Gyan Vani and Edusat Channels of IGNOU and the national channels of AIR/ Doordarshan regularly.

Gyan Darshan

It is a satellite-based national educational and development channel by the Ministry of Human Resource Development and Prasar Bharati, with IGNOU as the nodal agency. Gyan Darshan has expanded into a bouquet of channels namely GD-1, GD-2, GD-3 and GD-4, being uplinked from earth station at the EMPC.

GD 1 is 24 hr channel having the programmes produced by IGNOU and best educational programmes from other educational channels of Gyan Darshan channels.

GD 2 is devoted entirely to interactive distance education, which is a unique feature of the bouquet of channel.
GD 3 (Eklavya Channel) is 24 hr Channel which brings quality education to the student pursuing engineering throughout the country.

Gyan Vani

GD 4 (Vyas Channel) is 24 hr Channel which provide quality education to the students pursuing higher education throughout the country.

Educational channels are in existence in India for over three years. Since the launch of Gyan Darshan on January 26, 2000, the bouquet of educational TV channels today has three completely digital and round-the-clock channels. In November 2001, a FM radio channel called Gyan Vani was started which too has expanded manifold in its content and reach.

Gyan Darshan

Gyan Darshan offers interesting and informative programmes for different categories of users such as pre-school kids, primary and secondary school children, college/university students, youth seeking career opportunities, housewives and adults. These programmes are contributed by major educational institutions including IGNOU, UGC/CEC*, NCERT/CIET*, Directorate of Adult Education, IITs, TTTIs* and other educational/developmental organisations. The time slots are convenient and the programmes are prepared with the help of experts in the field and experienced production teams. Programmes from abroad are also broadcast to offer the viewer a window to the world.

Gyan Darshan transmissions, uplinked from the earth station of EMPC-IGNOU New Delhi, can be accessed all over the country throughout the year and round the clock without any break. Gyan Darshan signals can be conveniently received without any special equipment.

Gyan Darshan I

This is the main Gyan Darshan channel. Its programmes include the ‘countrywide classroom’ produced by CEC/UGC, ‘technovision’ produced by IITs and ‘Bhasha Mandakini’ produced by the Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan. Bhasha Mandakini, launched on September 5, 2003, Under Bhasha Mandakini, the ‘Sanskrit Bhasha’ language series of programmes are developed by the Rasthriya Sanskrit Sansthan in collaboration with other Sanskrit institutes of higher learning such as the Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth (Tirupati), Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth (Delhi) and other Sanskrit institute and universities of repute. Bhasha mandakini is planned to include all languages in the course of time.

Gyan Darshan 2 and TDCC

Gyan Darshan-2 is devoted entirely to interactive distance education.

Gyan Darshan-2 and TDCC (Training & Development Communication Channel) are one-way video and two-way audio satellite-based interactive systems. Teleconference through Gyan darshan and TDCC essentially follow the same principle except that the former operates on C-band while the latter on extended C. The signals can be received across the country.

TDCC is conceived as a ‘close user group’ and was introduced in 1993 under the aegis of DECU (ISRO) who pioneered the system of one-way video and two-way audio communication system for educational applications. TDCC has 6 up-linking facilities in the country and approximately 1000 downlinks established so far.

Live interaction or teleconference is yet another and the latest intervention in the distance education system. It provides a human face to the otherwise remote and distant learner. The viewers can directly access teachers/experts in the studio during an ongoing programme, express their views and clear their doubts regarding specific topics/issues as the programme goes on. IGNOU provides free interactive telephonic facility in 79 cities through its toll free number 1-600-1-12345 for teleconferencing on Gyan Darshan-2, TDCC and IRC(Delhi).

Eklavya Technology Channel

Eklavya brings quality education to students pursuing engineering education.

Eklavya features lectures of the courses taught at the IITs situated at Kharagpur, Mumbai, Kanpur, Delhi, Guwahati, Roorkee and Chennai.

Gyan Vani

Gyan Vani is an educational FM Radio channel operating through FM stations from various parts of the country. With 10 FM stations at Allahabad, Bangalore, Coimbatore, Vishakhapatnam, Mumbai, Lucknow, Bhopal, Kolkata, Chennai and Delhi already on air in the first half of 2003, the network is slated to expand to a total of 40 stations.

Gyan Vani stations operate as media cooperatives, with day-to-day programmes contributed by various Ministries, educational institutions, NGOs and national level institutions such as IGNOU, NCERT, UGC, IITs and open universities. Each station has a range of about 70 km radius, which covers the entire city/town as well as the surrounding area. Gyan Vani serves as an ideal medium for niche listeners and for addressing local educational, developmental and socio-cultural requirements. The programmes are in English, Hindi and the language of the region. The broadcast duration varies from stations to station, and is in the range of 8-12 hours.

IRC

Besides, IGNOU and All India Radio run a collaborative venture called interactive radio counselling (IRC). Each Sunday, from 4 p.m. to 5 p.m., IRC is available on 189 radio stations. The programmes are produced in Hindi and English and the AIR stations broadcast IRC in the language suited to their region.

The IRC programmes are prepared by IGNOU. On fourth Sunday of every month the State Open Universities conduct IRCs from Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Bangalore, Patna, Jaipur, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Mumbai.

CIET: Central Institute of Educational Technology, a constituent of NCERT

CEC: Consortium of Educational Communication, an inter-university center under UGC

TTTIs: Technical Teachers’ Training Institutes

GSAT-3, also known as EDUSAT, was a communications satellite which was launched on 20 September 2004 by the Indian Space Research Organisation. EDUSAT is the first Indian satellite built exclusively to serve the educational sector. It is mainly intended to meet the demand for an interactive satellite-based distance education system for the country

EDUSAT carries five K_u band transponders providing spot beams, one K_u band transponder providing a national beam and six extended C band transponders providing national coverage beams.

EDUSAT was successfully launched into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit on the first operational launch of the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, which flew from the First Launch Pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. EDUSAT was initially placed into a transfer orbit with a perigee of 180 kilometres (110 mi) and an apogee of 35,985 kilometres (22,360 mi) and a period of 10.5 hours, inclined at 19.2 degrees to the equator.

EDUSAT was decommissioned in September 2010 and relocated to a graveyard orbit

2. Match List - I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I (Institutions) List - II (Locations)

(a) The Indian Council of Historical (i) Shimla

Research (ICHR)

(b) The Indian Institute of Advanced (ii) New Delhi

Studies (IIAS)

(c) The Indian Council of Philosophical (iii) Banglore

Research (ICPR)

(d) The Central Institute of Coastal (iv) Lucknow

Engineering for fisheries

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer A

Councils

1. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in 1969 for promoting social science research, strengthening different disciplines, improving quality and quantum of research and its utilization in national policy formulation. To realize these objectives, the ICSSR envisaged development of institutional infrastructure, identifying research talents, formulating research programmes, supporting professional organizations and establishing linkages with social scientists in other countries. The ICSSR provides maintenance and development grants to various Research Institutes and Regional Centres across the country. Regional Centres have been set-up as extended arms of the ICSSR to support research and development of local talents and its programmes and activities in a decentralized manner.

Since 1976, the ICSSR has been carrying out surveys of research in different disciplines of social sciences.

With a view to give special emphasis to the promotion of social science research in the North Eastern Region, initiatives have been taken in the ICSSR to support research proposals and other activities.

2. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR)

Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was set up in 1977 by the Ministry of Education, Government of India as an autonomous organization for the promotion of research in Philosophy and allied discipline. The ICPR was born out of the conviction that Indian philosophy tradition deserves to have an exclusive and special agency in the country.

The Council has a broad-based membership comprising of distinguished philosophers, social scientists, representatives of the University Grants Commission, Indian Council of Social Science Research, Indian Council of Historic Research, Indian National Science Academy, the Central Government and the Government of Uttar Pradesh. The Governing Body (GB) and the Research Project Committee (RPC) are the main authorities of the council. These bodies are vested with well defined powers and functions.

3. Project of History of Indian Science, Philosophy & Culture (PHISPC)

PHISPC was launched in the year 1990 under the aegis of Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) with the basic objective of undertaking inter-disciplinary study so that inter-connection between Science, Philosophy and Culture as developed in the long history of Indian civilization, could be brought out in detail. From April 1, 1997, PHISPC was officially de-linked from Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) for a greater autonomy to complete the Project by the stipulated period, and is now affiliated to Centre for Studies in Civilizations (CSC). Government of India has recognized CSC as the nodal agency for the purposes of funding the ongoing research project, PHISPC.

The major programme of PHISPC is to publish several volumes on the theme mentioned in the 'Introduction'.

4. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)

Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization which was established under Societies Registration Act (Act XXI of 1860) in 1972. The prime objectives of the Council are to give a proper direction to historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of history. The broad aims of the Council are to bring historians together, provide a forum for exchange of views between them, give a national direction to an objective and rational presentation interpretation of history, to sponsor historical research programmes and projects and to assist institutions and organizations engaged in historical research. It has a broad view of history so as to include in its fold the history of Science and Technology, Economy, Art, Literature, Philosophy, Epigraphy, Numismatics, Archaeology, Socio-Economic formation processes and allied subjects containing strong historical bias and contents.

The ICHR has established two Regional Centres, one at Bangalore and the other at Guwahati with a view to reach out the far flung areas of the country.

5. National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI)

The National Council of Rural Institute is a registered autonomous society fully funded by the Central Government. It was established on October 19, 1995 with its Headquarters at Hyderabad. Its main objectives are to promote rural higher education on the lines of Mahatma Gandhi’s vision for education so as to take up challenges of micro planning for transformation of rural areas as envisaged in National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986. In order to achieve its objectives, the NCRI has been identifying various programmes for providing support and financial assistance, to be taken up by suitable institutions including voluntary organizations.

3. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(A) Right to equality

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right of free compulsory education of all children upto the age of 14

(D) All the above

Answer all of above are Fundamental Rights
The right to education at elementary level has been made one of the fundamental rights under the Eighty-Sixth Amendment of 2002

Article 21A – On 2 April 2010, India joined a group of few countries in the world, with a historic law making education a fundamental right of every child coming into force. Making elementary education an entitlement for children in the 6–14 age group, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act will directly benefit children who do not go to school at present. This act provides for appointment of teachers with the requisite entry and academic qualifications.

The former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh announced the operationalisation of the Act. Children, who had either dropped out of schools or never been to any educational institution, will get elementary education as it will be binding on the part of the local and State governments to ensure that all children in the 6–14 age group get schooling. As per the Act, private educational institutions should reserve 25 per cent seats for children from the weaker sections of society. The Centre and the States have agreed to share the financial burden in the ratio of 55:45, while the Finance Commission has given Rs.250 billion to the States for implementing the Act. The Centre has approved an outlay of Rs.150 billion for 2010–2011.

The school management committee or the local authority will identify the drop-outs or out-of-school children aged above six and admit them in classes appropriate to their age after giving special training.

4. The Lok - Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal five year term by:

(A) The Prime Minister

(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister

(D) None of the above

Answer C

the President of India cannot dissolve the Houses of Parliament by his discretion.

A little more insight:

Apart from term getting over, President of India can dissolve only Lok Sabha and that too, not by his discretion (Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber). He can dissolve the Lok Sabha in the following two cases:

When No Confidence Motion is passed in the Parliament: This means that the government has lost the confidence of Parliament and it must resign. Now the President must explore the possibility of forming a government which enjoys the support of Lok Sabha. If that’s not possible, he has to dissolve the Lok Sabha and fresh elections are called.
When the Prime Minister himself advises the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha and call for fresh elections.

Also, there is no such thing as President’s rule at Centre. President rule is only for the states.

June 2006

1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article:

(A) 125

(B) 352

(C) 226

(D) 324

Answer D
The President of India (based on a recommendation from incumbent Govt of India) appoints the Chief Election Commissioner. Conventionally, senior-most Election Commissioner is appointed as CEC. He has tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. He enjoys the same official status, salary and perks as available to judges of the Supreme Court of India and High court. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only through impeachment by the Parliament

By the "Election Commission (Condition Of Service Of Election Commissions And Transaction Of Business) Act, 1991", the salary of the chief election commissioner is the same as salary of a Judge of Supreme Court of India..

The provisions about the Election Commission are contained in Part XV of the Constitution Article 324(5) which provides for conditions of service and tenure of office is of special relevance. It reads as follows:

“(5) Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine:

Provided that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment:

Provided further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.”

2. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?

(A) Any MLA

(B) Chief of Army Staff

(C) Solicitor General of India

(D) Mayor of Delhi

Answer C
The Solicitor General of India is below the Attorney General for India, who is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. The Solicitor General of India is appointed for the period of 3 years. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitors General of India. Ranjit Kumar is the present Solicitor General who was appointed so on 7 June 2014 Like the Attorney General for India, the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General advise the Government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law Officers (Terms and Conditions) Rules, 1972. However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory. Appointments Committee of the Cabinet appoints the Solicitor General. Whereas Attorney General for India is appointed by the President under Article 76(1) of the Constitution, the solicitor general of India is appointed to assist the attorney general along with four additional solicitors general by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. The proposal for appointment of Solicitor General, Additional Solicitor General is generally moved at the, level of Joint secretary/Law Secretary in the Department of Legal Affairs and after obtaining the approval of the Minister of Law & Justice, the proposal is sent to the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet for its approval.

3. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?

Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.

Conclusions:

(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.

(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.

(A) only (I) is implied

(B) only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied

(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

Answer B

4. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic?

(A) Dakshin Gangotri

(B) Yamunotri

(C) Uttari Gangotri

(D) None of the above

Answer A

Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of India situated in Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Program. It is located at a distance of 2,500 kilometres (1,600 mi) from the South Pole. It is currently being used as a supply base and transit camp. The Dakshin Gangotri Glacier is named after the base.

It was established during the third Indian expedition to Antarctica in 1983–84. This was the first time an Indian team spent a winter in Antarctica to carry out scientific works. The station was built in eight weeks by an 81-member team. Construction was completed late into January 1984 with help from the Indian army and Indian Republic Day was celebrated at the station along with the Soviets and East Germans

5. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:

(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy

(B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education

(C) Department of Women and Child Development

(D) All the above

Answer D

6. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:

(A) With the prior permission of the President.

(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.

(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.

(D) At the request of two or more States.

Answer D

Powers of the Union Parliament to legislate on State List subjects

The Parliament can make laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List in the following circumstances:

1. When a resolution is passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority making it lawful for the Parliament to legislate on a subject mentioned in the State List in national interest (Art.249).

2. When a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on any of the matters stated in the State List (Art.250).

3. When two or more States give their consent and pass resolutions for the same in their respective Legislatures to enable the Parliament to make a law on any matter listed in the State List (Art.252). Any such law will be applicable to only those States which have passed such resolution, not to all states.

4. The Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference etc. (Art.253)

Residuary powers of the Parliament

As per article 248, Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not listed in the Concurrent List or State List. This power of the Parliament is known as its residuary power of legislation.

Exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha

The Rajya Sabha enjoys two exclusive powers:

1. As per Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by two thirds majority of its members for declaring a State List subject of national importance. Such a resolution empowers the Parliament to legislate on such State subject for a period of one year.

2. The Rajya Sabha also has the power to create one or more new All India Service by passing a resolution with two thirds majority of its members. It can discontinue an existing All India Service as well.

7. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India?

(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi

(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore

(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi

(D) India International Centre, New Delhi

Answer C

Located at Kotla Road, near I.T.O., New Delhi, it caters to children between the age group of 5 to 16 years. Bal Bhavan is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD)
(Approved by the Bal Bhavan Board in its 127th Meeting held on 9/10/1995 with the approval of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (Department of Education)

December 2006

1. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of:

(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission

(B) Mudaliar Commission

(C) Sargent Commission

(D) Kothari Commission

Answer A

2. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article 29

(C) Article 30

(D) Article 31

Answer C

Article 30 in The Constitution Of India 1949: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

(1) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

(1A) In making any law providing for the compulsory acquisition of any property of an educational institution established and administered by a minority, referred to in clause ( 1 ), the State shall ensure that the amount fixed by or determined under such law for the acquisition of such property is such as would not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed under that clause

(2) The state shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language

Some Important Articles of the Constitution of India

Let us now look at some of the important articles of the Constitution of India and what they deal with.

ARTICLE DEALS WITH

1 Name and Territory of Union

3 New States Formation, Alteration of Boundaries etc.

13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights

14 Equality before Law (popularly known as Right to Equality)

15 Prohibition of Discrimination (on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)

16 Equality in case of Public Employment

17 Abolition of Untouchability

18 Abolition of Titles

19 Protection of Certain Rights to Freedom (popularly known as Right to Freedom)

19a Freedom of Speech & Expression

19b Right to Peaceful Assembly

19c Freedom of Association

19d Right to Move Freely through India

19e Freedom of Settlement & Residence

19f (Omitted as a fundamental right – governed by article 300A.) Right to Own Personal Property.

19g Freedom to Practise any Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business

21 Right to Life and Personal Liberty

21A Right to Education

23 Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labour

24 Prohibition of Child Labour

25 Freedom to Practise & Propagate Religion Freely

29 Protection of Interests of Minorities

32 Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights including writs

44 Uniform Civil Code

50 Separation of Judiciary from Executive

51 Promotion of International Peace and Security

51A Fundamental Duties

72 Powers of President to Grant Pardons etc.

76 Attorney-General of India

78 Duties of Prime Minister

85 Sessions of Parliament, Prorogation and Dissolution

93 The Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

100 Voting in Houses

105 Powers, Privileges etc. of Members of Parliament

106 Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament

108 Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament

109-110 Money Bills

112 Budget

123 President’s Power to Promulgate Ordinance while Parliament in Recess

127 Appointment of ad hoc Judges in the Supreme Court

139 Supreme Court’s Powers to Issue Certain Writs

141 Supreme Court’s Law Binding on All Courts

148-149 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

155 Appointment of Governor

161 Power of Governors to Grant Pardon etc.

165 Advocate-General for the State

167 Duties of Chief Minister

224 Appointment of Additional & Acting Judges in High Courts

224A Appointment of Retired Judges in High Courts

226 Power of High Courts to issue writs

280 Finance Commission

312 All India Services

324 Election Commission

335 SCs and STs claim to Services and Posts

343 Official Language

352 National Emergency

356 President’s Rule in case of Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States

360 Financial Emergency

368 Power of Parliament to Amend the Constitution

370 Temporary provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir

3. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)

(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget

(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget

(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget

(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)

Answer B

4. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:

(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration

(B) Administrative Staff College of India

(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration

(D) Centre for Advanced Studies

Answer C

5. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by:

(A) Election Commission of India

(B) Joint Committee of Parliament

(C) Supreme Court of India

(D) Central Election Tribunal

Answer C

6. Human Development Report for ‘each’ of the year at global level has been published by:

(A) UNDP

(B) WTO

(C) IMF

(D) World Bank

Answer A

United Nations Development Programme

UNDP works in about 170 countries and territories, helping to achieve the eradication of poverty, and the reduction of inequalities and exclusion. We help countries to develop policies, leadership skills, partnering abilities, institutional capabilities and build resilience in order to sustain development results.

This is a critical time for the world. At UNDP, we see this period as a huge opportunity to advance the global sustainable development agenda. In September 2015, world leaders adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure that all people enjoy peace and prosperity. UNDP is working to strengthen new frameworks for development, disaster risk reduction and climate change. We support countries' efforts to achieve the new Sustainable Development Goals, or Global Goals, which will guide global development priorities through 2030.

UNDP focuses on helping countries build and share solutions in three main areas:

Sustainable development
Democratic governance and peacebuilding
Climate and disaster resilience

In all our activities, we encourage the protection of human rights and the empowerment of women, minorities and the poorest and most vulnerable.

The annual Human Development Report, commissioned by UNDP, focuses the global debate on key development issues, providing new measurement tools, innovative analysis and often controversial policy proposals. The global Report's analytical framework and inclusive approach carry over into regional, national and local Human Development Reports, also supported by UNDP.

UNDP role in UN coordination

UN coordination is a key priority for UNDP and a commitment in our Strategic Plan. The UNDP Administrator is the Chair of the UN Development Group (UNDG), which unites the funds, programmes, specialized agencies, departments and offices of the UN system that play a role in development. Created by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan and endorsed by the General Assembly, the UNDG seeks to ‘facilitate joint policy formulation, encourage programmatic collaboration and realize management efficiencies’ among UN agencies.

At the country level, this interagency structure is embedded in the Resident Coordinator System (RCS), which encompasses all organizations of the United Nations system with operational activities for development. The RCS is managed by UNDP on behalf of the entire system. The Resident Coordinator function is carried by the UNDP Resident Representative. As the designated representative of the Secretary-General, the Resident Coordinator is the leader of the UN Country Team (UNCT) and plays a central role in coordinating the UN’s development operations and ensuring alignment with national priorities. UNDP provides the lion’s share of the resources needed to maintain the RC system in over 130 countries. The remainder of the RCS funding comes from a cost-sharing arrangement between all participating agencies.

UNDP also administers the UN Capital Development Fund, which helps developing countries grow their economies by supplementing existing sources of capital assistance by means of grants and loans; and UN Volunteers, which fields over 6,000 volunteers from 160 countries in support of peace and development through volunteerism worldwide.

June 2007

1. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen

(B) Successful businessman

(C) Popular teacher

(D) Efficient manager

Answer A

Value education

One definition refers to it as the process that gives young people an initiation into values, giving knowledge of the rules needed to function in this mode of relating to other people, and to seek the development in the student a grasp of certain underlying principles, together with the ability to apply these rules intelligently, and to have the settled disposition to do so Some researchers use the concept values education as an umbrella of concepts that includes moral education and citizenship education Themes that values education can address to varying degrees are character, moral development, Religious Education, Spiritual development, citizenship education, personal development, social development and cultural development.

There is a further distinction between explicit values education and implicit values education where:

explicit values education is associated with those different pedagogies, methods or programmes that teachers or educators use in order to create learning experiences for students when it comes to value questions.

Another definition of value education is "learning about self and wisdom of life" in a self exploratory, systematic and scientific way through formal education.

Living Values Education Programme (LVEP)

This project of worldwide proportions inspired by the new religious movement called the Brahma Kumaris World Spiritual University incorporates twelve values (unity, peace, happiness, hope, humility, simplicity, trust, freedom, co-operation, honesty, courage, love), and has formed the basis of thekiss whole-school ethos approach in schools such as West Kidlington Primary School, Kidlington whose head master Neil Hawkes and Values education coordinators Linda Heppenstall used the work and other programmes to help them form a values-based school. The LVEP website lists 54 countries where values education projects are undertaken.

Human Values Foundation

The Human Values Foundation was established in 1995 to make available worldwide, a comprehensive values-themed programme for children from 4 to 12 years entitled "Education in Human Values". Its fully resourced lesson plans utilise familiar teaching techniques of discussion, story-telling, quotations, group singing, activities to reinforce learning and times of quiet reflection. Following the success of "EHV", a second programme was published – Social and Emotional Education ("SEE"), primarily for ages 12 to 14+ but it has also proved constructive for older children identified as likely to benefit from help getting their lives 'back on track'. The programmes enable children and young people to explore and put into practice a wide spectrum of values with the potential to enrich their lives. Through the experiential learning, over time participants develop a well considered personal morality, all the while gaining invaluable emotional and social skills to help them lead happy, fulfilled, successful lives.

The Indian Government currently promote Values education in its schools. The Ministry of Human Resource Development has taken strong step to introduce values among schools and teachers training centers. Also India is known as the land of introducing values. In India From the leadership of B. Shaji Kumar, New Golden Education Trust (NGET) Values Based Education has progressing throughout the country among schools from first standard to twelve std class.

2. Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as:

(A) Inflibnet

(B) Libinfnet

(C) Internet

(D) HTML

Answer A

INFLIBNET Centre (Information and Library Network Centre) is an autonomous Inter-University Centre of the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India under Ministry of HRD (MHRD) located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The centre was initially started as a national project under IUCAA in March, 1991. It became an independent Inter-University Centre in June 1996.

INFLIBNET is involved in modernizing university libraries in India and connecting them as well as information centres in the country through a nationwide high speed data network using the state-of-art technologies for the optimum utilization of information. INFLIBNET is set out to be a major player in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researchers in India.

3. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is:

(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad

(B) I.G.N.O.U.

(C) University of Pune

(D) Annamalai University

Answer B

4. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year:

(A) 1980

(B) 1948

(D) 1956

Answer D

5. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:

(A) Central Universities

(B) Deemed Universities

(C) Residential Universities

(D) Open Universities

Answer A

December 2007

1. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:

(A) SATEDU

(B) INSAT - B

(C) EDUSAT

(D) INSAT-C

Answer C

2. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:

(A) GyanDarshan

(B) Cyan Vani

(C) DoorDarshan

(D) Prasar Bharati

Answer A

3. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:

(A) Sevagram

(B) New Delhi

(C) Wardha

(D) Ahmedabad

Answer C
Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya (English: Mahatma Gandhi International Hindi University, Hindi: महात्मा गांधी अंतरराष्ट्रीय हिंदी विश्वविद्यालय) is a Central University located in Wardha, Maharashtra, India.

4. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(Institutes) (Locations)

(a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages

(b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad

(c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi

(d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer A

5. The aim of vocationalization of education is:

(A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge

(B) converting liberal education into vocational education

(C) giving more importance to vocational than general education

(D) making liberal education job-oriented

Answer D
Vocational education is concerned with the training on vocation. It is related to productivity. Vocational education prepares individuals for jobs. It has adequate employment potentialities. It helps in broadening of horizon. It leads to dignity of labour. It is helpful in the maximum utilisation of the material resources of the country.

June 2008

1. NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:

(A) ICSSR

(B) CSIR

(C) AICTE

(D) UGC

Answer D

2. National Council for Women's Education was established in:

(A) 1958

(B) 1976

(D) 2000

Answer A

Durgābāi Deshmukh, Lady Deshmukh (15 July 1909 – 9 May 1981) was an Indian freedom fighter, lawyer, social worker and politician. She was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and of the Planning Commission of India.

She was the first chairperson of the National Council on Women's Education, established by the Government of India in 1958. In 1959, the committee presented its recommendations, as follows:

"The Centre and State Governments should give priority to the education of girls.
In the central ministry of education, a department of women's education should be created.
For proper education of girls, a Director of Women's Education should be appointed in each state.
Co-education should be properly organised at higher level of education.
The University Grants Commission should specify a definite amount separately for the education of girls.
In the first phase of development, provision of free education should be made for girls up to Class VIII
Facilities in the choice of optional subjects should be made available for girls.
Girls should get training facilities on a liberal basis.
Education of Girls should be given due encouragement in rural areas.
A large number of seats in various services should be reserved for them.
Programmes for the development of adult women's education should be properly initiated and encouraged."

To commemorate her legacy Andhra University, Visakhapatnam has named its Department of Women Studies as Dr. Durgabai Deshmukh Centre for Women's Studies.

3. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?

(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations

(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research

(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies

Answer D
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute based in Shimla, India. It was set up by the Ministry of Education, Government of India in 1964 and it started functioning from 20 October 1965

4. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:

(A) Administration

(B) Policy-making

(C) Finance

(D) Curriculum development

Answer D

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I (Institutions) List-II (Locatio ns)

(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai

(b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda

(c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur

(d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) (vi) (iv)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer A

December 2008

1. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:

(A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony

(B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics, administration, industry and commerce

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

Answer C

2. The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

(A) Delhi University

(B) a Deemed University

(C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU

(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

Answer D

On August 15, 1949, the National Museum, New Delhi, was inaugurated in the Rashtrapati Bhawan by Shri R.C. Rajagopalachari, the Governor-General of India. The foundation of the present building was laid by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India, on May 12, 1955. The first phase of the National Museumbuilding was formally inaugurated by Dr. SarvepalliRadhakrishnan, the Vice President of India, on December 18, 1960. The second phase of the building was completed in 1989.

While the Museum continued to grow its collection through gifts that were sought painstakingly, artefacts were collected through its Arts Purchase Committee. The Museum presently holds approximately 2,00,000 objects of a diverse nature, both Indian as well as foreign, and its holdings cover a time span of more than five thousand years of Indian cultural heritage.

The National Museum was initially looked after by the Director General of Archaeology until 1957, when the Ministry of Education, Government of India, declared it a separate institution and placed it under its own direct control. At present, the National Museum is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List-I List-II

(Institutions) (Locations)

(a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla

(b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal

(c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad

(d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer D

4. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by:

(A) Election Commission of India

(B) State Election Commission

(C) District Collector and District Magistrate

(D) Concerned Returning Officer

Answer B

5. Which opinion is not correct?

(A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of India

(B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body

(C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of concurrent list

(D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to research in social sciences

Answer C

समवर्ती सूची

The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The legislative section is divided into three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland or Australia, residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government.

The 52 items currently on the list are:

1. Criminal law, including all matters included in the Indian Penal Code at the commencement of this Constitution but excluding offences against laws with respect to any of the matters specified in List I or List II and excluding the use of naval, military or air forces or any other armed forces of the Union in aid of the civil power.

2. Criminal procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Criminal Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution.

3. Preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State, the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community; persons subjected to such detention.

4. Removal from one State to another State of prisoners, accused persons and persons subjected to preventive detention for reasons specified in Entry 3 of this list.

5. Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy and succession; joint family and partition; all matters in respect of which parties in judicial proceedings were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution subject to their personal law.

6. Transfer of property other than agricultural land; registration of deeds and documents.

7. Contracts including partnership, agency, contracts of carriage, and other special forms of contracts, but not including contracts relating to agricultural land.

8. Actionable wrongs.

9. Bankruptcy and insolvency.

10. Trust and Trustees.

11. Administrators – general and official trustees.

11-A. Administration of justice; constitution and Organisation of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

12. Evidence and oaths; recognition of laws, public acts and records, and judicial proceedings.

13. Civil procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Civil Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution, limitation and arbitration.

14. Contempt of court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court.

15. Vagrancy; nomadic and migratory tribes.

16. Lunacy and mental deficiency, including places for the reception or treatment of lunatics and mental deficients.

17. Prevention of cruelty to animals.

17-A. Forests.

17-B. Protection of wild animals and birds.

18. Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.

19. Drugs and poisons, subject to the provisions of Entry 59 of List I with respect to opium.

20. Economic and social planning.

20-A. Population control and family planning.

21. Commercial and industrial monopolies, combines and trusts.

22. Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes.

23. Social security and social insurance; employment and unemployment.

24. Welfare of labour including conditions of work, provident funds, employers' liability, workmen's compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.

25. Education, including technical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I; vocational and technical training of labour.

26. Legal, medical and other professions.

27. Relief and rehabilitation of persons displaced from their original place of residence by reason of the setting up of the Dominions of India and Pakistan.

28. Charities and charitable institutions, charitable and religious endowments and religious institutions.

29. Prevention of the extension from one State to another of infectious or contagious diseases or pests affecting men, animals or plants.

30. Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths.

31. Ports other than those declared by or under law made by Parliament or existing law to be major ports.

32. Shipping and navigation on inland waterways as regards mechanically propelled vessels, and the rule of the road on such waterways, and the carriage of passengers and goods on inland waterways subject to the provisions of List I with respect to national waterways.

33. Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,-

(a) the products of any industry where the control of such industry by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest, and imported goods of the same kind as such products

(b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils

(c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates

(d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and

(e) raw jute.

33-A. Weights and measures except establishment of standards.

34. Price control.

35. Mechanically propelled vehicles including the principles on which taxes on such vehicles are to be levied.

36. Factories.

37. Boilers.

38. Electricity.

39. Newspapers, books and printing presses.

40. Archaeological sites and remains other than those declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.

41. Custody, management and disposal of property (including agricultural land) declared by law to be evacuee property.

42. Acquisition and requisitioning of property.

43. Recovery in a State of claims in respect of taxes and other public demands, including arrears of land-revenue and sums recoverable as such arrears, arising outside that State.

44. Stamp duties other than duties or fees collected by means of judicial stamps, but not including rates of stamp duty.

45. Inquiries and statistics for the purposes of any of the matters specified in List II or List III.

46. Jurisdiction and powers of all courts, except the Supreme Court, with respect to any of the matters in this List.

47. Fees in respect of any of the matters in this List, but not including fees taken in any court.

Transferred Subjects

Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List. They are:

Education
Forests
Weights & Measures
Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
Administration of Justice

June 2009

1. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:

(A) Education and National Development

(B) Learning to be adventure

(C) Diversification of Education

(D) Education and socialization in democracy

Answer A

2. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?

(A) Delhi University

(B) Bangalore University

(C) Madras University

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer D

3. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators”?

(A) Part I

(B) Part II

(C) Part III

(D) Part IV

Answer D

4. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament?

(A) Article 371 A

(B) Article 371 B

(C) Article 371 C

(D) Article 263

Answer A

5. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance सुशासन?

(A) Right to information

(B) Citizens' Charter

(C) Social Auditing

(D) Judicial Activism

न्यायिक सक्रियताAnswer D

December 2009

1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is

(A) Osmania University

(B) University of Pune

(C) Annamalai University

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

Answer D

2. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?

(A) NAAC and UGC

(B) NCTE and NAAC

(C) UGC and NCTE

(D) NCTE and IGNOU

Answer B

3. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500 Universities is to

(A) create more teaching jobs

(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education

(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions

(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas

Answer B

4. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in

(A) English only

(B) Hindi only

(C) English and Hindi both

(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution

Answer C

5. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?

(A) Seminar

(B) Workshop

(C) Lecture

(D) Group Discussion

Answer D

6. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President

(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats

Answer C

7. The enrollment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes

(A) 50% of formal system

(B) 25% of formal system

(C) 10% of the formal system

(D) Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer B

8. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of teachers.

Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.

Answer A

June 2010

1. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.

(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.

(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.

(D) All of the above

Answer D

2. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of

(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.

(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.

(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.

(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.

Answer B

3. Which option is not correct?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall

Under 64^th entry of Union list.

(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment

Act 1976.

(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.

(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86^th Constitutional Amendment.

Answer C

4. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?

(A) It is celebrated on 5^th September every year.

(B) It is celebrated on 11^th November every year.

(C) It is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.

(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

Answer A
National Education Day is an annual observance in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the first education minister of independent India, who served from 15 August 1947 until 2 February 1958. National Education Day of India is celebrated on 11 November every year

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Articles of the

Constitution) (Institutions)

(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals

(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India

(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level

(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Answer B

6. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to

(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.

(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.

(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.

(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council

Answer C

December 2010

1. India’s first Defense University is in the State of

(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Punjab

Answer A

2. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only

(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations

(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations

(D) promote research only

Answer C

3. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Union Public Service Commission

(D) Planning Commission

Answer D

4. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.

(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.

(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

Answer B is given in answer key but All options are correct

Constitutional Provisions for Judicial Review:

The Indian Constitution adopted the Judicial Review on lines of U.S. Constitution. Parliament is not supreme under the Constitution of India. Its powers are limited in a manner that the power is divided between centre and states.

Moreover the Supreme Court enjoys a position which entrusts it with the power of reviewing the legislative enactments both of Parliament and the State Legislatures. This grants the court a powerful instrument of judicial review under the constitution.

Both the political theory and text of the Constitution has granted the judiciary the power of judicial review of legislation. The Constitutional Provisions which guarantee judicial review of legislation are Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, 145, 246, 251, 254 and 372.

Article 372 (1) establishes the judicial review of the pre-constitution legislation.

Article 13 declares that any law which contravenes any of the provisions of the part of Fundamental Rights shall be void.

Articles 32 and 226 entrusts the roles of the protector and guarantor of fundamental rights to the Supreme and High Courts.

Article 251 and 254 states that in case of inconsistency between union and state laws, the state law shall be void.

Article 246 (3) ensures the state legislature’s exclusive powers on matters pertaining to the State List.

Article 245 states that the powers of both Parliament and State legislatures are subject to the provisions of the constitution.

The legitimacy of any legislation can be challenged in the court of law on the grounds that the legislature is not competent enough to pass a law on that particular subject matter; the law is repugnant to the provisions of the constitutions; or the law infringes one of the fundamental rights.

Articles 131-136 entrusts the court with the power to adjudicate disputes between individuals, between individuals and the state, between the states and the union; but the court may be required to interpret the provisions of the constitution and the interpretation given by the Supreme Court becomes the law honoured by all courts of the land.

There is no express provision in our constitution empowering the courts to invalidate laws, but the constitution has imposed definite limitations upon each of the organs, the transgression of which would make the law void. The court is entrusted with the task of deciding whether any of the constitutional limitations has been transgressed or not.

Changing Trends in Judicial Review:

Recently there is a rising trends in judicial activism in the land. The doors of the judiciary are kept open for redressing the grievances of persons who cannot ordinarily have access to justice. The strict observance of the traditional rule of locus standi will do injustice to certain persons who do not have the money, knowledge and facilities of approaching court.

In such cases if a public spirited person comes forward on their behalf courts relax the rules an adjudicate over the matter. Thus, in the matter of socially and economically backward groups or persons who are not aware of their rights or not capable of pursuing their case in a court, the complex and rigorous procedural formalities are not insisted upon. At this level there are cases when press reports were taken as write petitions and reliefs granted. Letters addressed to the courts were also ‘treated as petitions.

Judicial review is one of the important techniques by which the courts examine the actions of the legislature, the executive and the other governmental agencies and decide whether or not these actions are valid and within the limits set by the Constitution.

Therefore, with the power of judicial review the courts act as a custodian of the fundamental rights. The Indian Judiciary, given the federal structure of the Constitution, also settles conflicts of jurisdiction in legislation between the centre and the states. With the growing functions of the modern state judicial intervention in the process of making administrative decisions and executive them has also increased.

5. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) No State religion

(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions

(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

Answer D

6. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?

6. राज्यपाल द्वारा नियुक्त निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत के केवल राष्ट्रपति द्वारा हटाया जा सकता है?

(A) Chief Minister of a State

(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission

(C) Advocate-General

(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University

Answer B

June 2011

1. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Delhi

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer A

2. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government

(B) the State Governments

(C) the University Grants Commission

(D) Private bodies and Individuals

Answer C

3. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India ?

(A) NCTE

(B) MCI

(C) AICTE

(D) CSIR

Answer C

4. Consider the following statements :

Identify the statement which implies natural justice.

(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.

(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.

(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

Answer C

प्राकृतिक न्याय एक नागरिक का एक अतुलनीय अधिकार है

5. The President of India is

(A) The Head of State

(B) The Head of Government

(C) Both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

(D) None of the above

Answer A
The President of the Republic of India is the head of state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.

The President is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising the Parliament of India (both houses) and the Legislative Assemblies of each of India's states and territories, who themselves are all directly elected. The office-holder serves for a term of five years; there are no term limits. The oath of the President is taken in the presence of the Chief Justice of India, and in their absence, by the most senior judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Although the Article 53 of the Constitution of India states that the President can exercise his powers directly or by subordinate authority,[3] with few exceptions, all of the executive powers vested in the President are, in practice, exercised by the Prime Minister with the help of the Council of Ministers. The President is bound by convention to act on the advice of the Prime Minister and Cabinet.
भारत गणराज्य के राष्ट्रपति भारत राज्य और भारतीय सशस्त्र बलों के कमांडर-इन-चीफ हैं।

राष्ट्रपति अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से भारत के संसद (दोनों घरों) और भारत के प्रत्येक राज्य और प्रदेशों के विधान सभाओं को शामिल करते हुए एक चुनावी कॉलेज द्वारा निर्वाचित होते हैं, जो स्वयं सीधे निर्वाचित होते हैं। कार्यालय-धारक पांच साल की अवधि के लिए कार्य करता है; कोई अवधि की सीमा नहीं है राष्ट्रपति की शपथ भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश की उपस्थिति में ली जाती है, और उनकी अनुपस्थिति में, भारत के सर्वोच्च न्यायालय के सबसे वरिष्ठ न्यायाधीश द्वारा।

यद्यपि भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 53 में कहा गया है कि राष्ट्रपति अपनी शक्तियां सीधे या अधीनस्थ प्राधिकारी द्वारा उपयोग कर सकते हैं, [3] कुछ अपवादों के साथ, राष्ट्रपति के पास निहित सभी कार्यकारी शक्तियां प्रथा में हैं, जो प्रधान मंत्री द्वारा प्रयोग की जाती हैं। मंत्रिपरिषद की सहायता राष्ट्रपति प्रधान मंत्री और मंत्रिमंडल की सलाह पर कार्य करने के लिए सम्मेलन से बाध्य है।

The Prime Minister of India is the head of government and leader of the executive branch of the Government of India. The Prime Minister is also the chief advisor to the President of India and head of the Council of Ministers. They can be a member of any of the two houses of Parliament (the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha), but has to be the leader of the political party, having a majority in the Lok Sabha.

भारत का प्रधान मंत्री सरकार का प्रमुख और भारत सरकार के कार्यकारी शाखा का नेता है। प्रधान मंत्री भारत के राष्ट्रपति और मंत्रिपरिषद के प्रमुख के मुख्य सलाहकार भी हैं। वे संसद के दो घरों (लोकसभा या राज्यसभा) के किसी भी सदस्य का सदस्य हो सकते हैं, लेकिन लोकसभा में बहुमत वाले राजनीतिक दल के नेता होना चाहिए।

6. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ?

(A) Chief Election Commissioner

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State

Answer D
Governors of the states, Attorney General of India, Civil Sevices Personal, Council of Ministers and Prime Minister hold the office during pleasure of President.The chairman and members of UPSC do not hold office during pleasure of President, infact they hold a fixed tenure. CAG is appointed by President and removed from Office in a manner and on grounds like Judge of Supreme Court.

December 2011

1. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is

(A) the moral values

(B) the social values

(C) the political values

(D) the economic values

Answer A

2. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.

(A) 10

(B) 07

(C) 08

(D) 09

Answer B

3. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

(A) The President of India

(B) Finance Minister of India

(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

Answer D

4. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Commissions and Committees)	List – II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission	(i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I	(ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee	(iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission	(iv) 1953

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer B

5. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by

(A) The State Election Commission of respective States

(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India

(C) The Election Commission of India

(D) Election Department of the State Governments

Answer C

6. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas

(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker

(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas

(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

Answer D

June 2012

1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala

(B) Shimla

(C) Solan

(D) Chandigarh

Answer B

2. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.

(A) 04

(B) 05

(C) 06

(D) 08

Answer A
National Council for Teacher Education is a Statutory Body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) of Government of India. It was established by an Act of Parliament 1993 on 29th December 1993 with a view to achieving planned and co-coordinated development of the teacher education system throughout the country, the regulation and proper maintenance of norms and standards in the teacher education system and for matters connected therewith

नेशनल काउंसिल फॉर टीचर एजुकेशन एक भारत सरकार के मानव संसाधन विकास मंत्रालय (एमएचआरडी) के तहत एक वैधानिक निकाय है। इसे पूरे देश में शिक्षक शिक्षा प्रणाली के नियोजित और सह-समन्वित विकास को प्राप्त करने के लिए 29 दिसंबर 1993 को संसद के अधिनियम 1993 द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था, शिक्षक शिक्षा प्रणाली में नियमों और मानकों का उचित रखरखाव और मामलों के लिए इसके साथ जुड़ा हुआ है

To fulfill the responsibility as assigned by NCTE Act., NCTE has 4 Regional offices which are as follows:

Eastern Regional Committee (ERC) located at Bhubaneswar.
Southern Regional Committee (SRC) located at Bangalore.
Western Regional Committee (WRC) located at Bhopal.
Northern Regional Committee (NRC) located at Jaipur.

3. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?

(A) Freedom of Speech

(B) Right to Equality

(C) Right to Freedom of Religion

(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies संवैधानिक उपचार का अधिकार

Answer D

4. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?

(A) Lord Cornwallis

(B) Warren Hastings

(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation

(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe

Answer B

5. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

(1) Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem

(2) To develop the scientific temper.

(3) Respect for the Government.

(4) To protect Wildlife.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer B

6. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.

(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.

(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.

Answer D

December 2012

1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?

(1) The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.

(2) He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.

(3) He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

(4) He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 3 only

Answer A

The Attorney General for India is the Indian government's chief legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India. He is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, also must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President and must be a citizen of India.

Powers and duties

The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice to the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote. The Attorney General appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which Government of India is concerned. He also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.

Unlike the Attorney General of the United States, the Attorney General for India does not have any executive authority. Those functions are performed by the Law Minister of India. Also the AG is not a government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice.

The Attorney General can accept briefs but cannot appear against the Government. He cannot defend an accused in the criminal proceedings and accept the directorship of a company without the permission of the Government.

The Attorney General is assisted by a Solicitor General and four additional Solicitors General. The Attorney General is to be consulted only in legal matters of real importance and only after the Ministry of Law has been consulted. All references to the Attorney General are made by the Law Ministry

अटॉर्नी जनरल को भारत सरकार की कानूनी मामलों में सलाह देने के लिए आवश्यक है। वह राष्ट्रपति द्वारा उन्हें सौंपे गए अन्य कानूनी कर्तव्यों का भी कार्य करता है। अटार्नी जनरल के पास भारत के सभी न्यायालयों के साथ-साथ संसद की कार्यवाही में भाग लेने का अधिकार है, हालांकि वोट करने के लिए नहीं। भारत सरकार की ओर से सुप्रीम कोर्ट में सभी मामलों में अटॉर्नी जनरल (सूट, अपील और अन्य कार्यवाही सहित) भारत सरकार की ओर से दिखाई देता है जिसमें भारत सरकार का संबंध है। वह संविधान के अनुच्छेद 143 के तहत राष्ट्रपति द्वारा सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में दिए गए किसी भी संदर्भ में भारत सरकार का भी प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।

संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका के अटॉर्नी जनरल के विपरीत, भारत के लिए अटॉर्नी जनरल के पास कोई कार्यकारी अधिकार नहीं है। उन कार्यों को भारत के कानून मंत्री द्वारा किया जाता है। एजी भी सरकारी नौकर नहीं है और निजी कानूनी प्रथा से वंचित नहीं है।

अटॉर्नी जनरल संक्षिप्त विवरण स्वीकार कर सकता है लेकिन सरकार के खिलाफ नहीं दिखाई दे सकता है वह आपराधिक कार्यवाही में अभियुक्त का बचाव नहीं कर सकते और सरकार की अनुमति के बिना कंपनी के निदेशालय को स्वीकार कर सकते हैं।

अटॉर्नी जनरल को एक सॉलिसिटर जनरल और चार अतिरिक्त सॉलिसिटर जनरल द्वारा सहायता प्रदान की जाती है। अटार्नी जनरल को केवल वास्तविक महत्व के कानूनी मामलों में परामर्श करना है और कानून के बाद ही परामर्श किया गया है। अटॉर्नी जनरल के लिए सभी संदर्भ कानून मंत्रालय द्वारा किए गए हैं

2. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा उपसर्ग राष्ट्रपति प्रणव मुखर्जी भारतीय गणमान्य व्यक्तियों के साथ-साथ आधिकारिक टिप्पणियों के साथ बातचीत करते समय बंद करने का निर्णय लिया ?

1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim

3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 2

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer C

3. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?

1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.

2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.

3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.

4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 2

(D) 2 and 3

Answer D

The President can declare three types of emergencies:

National emergency
State emergency
Financial emergency

National emergency under article 352

National emergency can be declared on the basis of external aggression or armed rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by Indira Gandhi). The President can declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written request by the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be laid before both houses of Parliament, and the state of emergency expires after one month unless approved within that time by both houses sitting and voting separately. However, if the Lok Sabha (the lower house) is not in session when the state of emergency is declared, and the Rajya Sabha approves of the state of emergency, the deadline for the Lok Sabha is extended until thirty days after that house convenes. According to Article 352(6), approval by each house requires a special majority: those in favour of the motion must be two thirds of those present and voting, and amount to a majority of the entire membership of that house. A Parliamentary resolution extends the state of emergency for up to six months, and it can be extended indefinitely by further resolutions in six-monthly increments.

During a national emergency, many Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically suspended. By contrast, the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original Constitution. In January 1977, during the emergency declared controversially by Indira Gandhi, the government decided to suspend even the Right to Life and Personal Liberty by dispensing with Habeas corpus. Justice Hans Raj Khanna defended the Right to Life and asked: "Life is also mentioned in Article 21 and would Government argument extend to it also?". The Attorney General observed: "Even if life was taken away illegally, courts are helpless".

A national emergency modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one by granting Parliament the power to make laws on the 66 subjects of the State List (which contains subjects on which the state governments can make laws). Also, all state money bills are referred to the Parliament for its approval.

During an emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha can be successively extended by intervals of up to one year, but not beyond six months after the state of emergency has been revoked.

अनुच्छेद 352 के तहत राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल

राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल बाहरी आक्रमण या सशस्त्र विद्रोह के आधार पर पूरे भारत या इसके क्षेत्र का एक हिस्सा घोषित किया जा सकता है। 1 9 62 (चीन युद्ध), 1 9 71 (पाकिस्तान युद्ध) और 1 9 75 (इंदिरा गांधी द्वारा घोषित) में इस तरह की आपातकाल भारत में घोषित की गई थी। राष्ट्रपति केवल प्रधानमंत्री की अध्यक्षता वाली कैबिनेट के लिखित अनुरोध के आधार पर ही ऐसी आपात स्थिति को घोषित कर सकते हैं। इस तरह की एक घोषणा संसद के दोनों सदनों के समक्ष रखी जानी चाहिए, और आपातकाल की स्थिति एक महीने के बाद समाप्त हो जाएगी, जब तक कि उस समय के भीतर दोनों सदन में बैठे और मतदान अलग-अलग नहीं हो। हालांकि, यदि आपातकाल की स्थिति घोषित होने पर लोकसभा (निचला सदन) सत्र में नहीं है, और राज्यसभा में आपातकाल की स्थिति को मंजूरी दी जाती है, तो लोक सभा की अंतिम तिथि उस घर की तरफ से तीस दिनों तक बढ़ जाती है। अनुच्छेद 352 (6) के अनुसार, प्रत्येक घर द्वारा अनुमोदन के लिए विशेष बहुमत की आवश्यकता होती है: प्रस्ताव के पक्ष में उन वर्तमान और मतदान के दो तिहाई होने चाहिए, और उस घर की पूरी सदस्यता की बहुमत के बराबर होना चाहिए। एक संसदीय संकल्प छह माह तक आपातकाल की स्थिति बढ़ाता है, और इसे छह महीने की वेतन वृद्धि में और प्रस्तावों से अनिश्चित काल तक विस्तारित किया जा सकता है।

राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान भारतीय नागरिकों के कई मूलभूत अधिकारों को निलंबित किया जा सकता है। स्वतंत्रता के अधिकार के तहत छः स्वतंत्रताएं स्वतः निलंबित हैं इसके विपरीत, मूल संविधान के अनुसार राइट टू लाइफ और पर्सनल लिबर्टी को निलंबित नहीं किया जा सकता है। जनवरी 1 9 77 में, इंदिरा गांधी द्वारा विवादास्पद घोषित आपातकाल के दौरान, सरकार ने हबीस कॉर्पस के साथ वितरण करके राइट टू लाइफ और पर्सनल लिबर्टी को निलंबित करने का भी फैसला किया। न्यायमूर्ति हंस राज खन्ना ने राइट टू लाइफ का बचाव किया और पूछा: "जीवन का भी अनुच्छेद 21 में उल्लेख किया गया है और क्या सरकार का तर्क भी इसमें विस्तार होगा?" अटॉर्नी जनरल ने कहा: "भले ही जीवन को अवैध रूप से लिया गया हो, न्यायालय असहाय हैं"

एक राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल सरकार की संघीय व्यवस्था को राज्य की सूची के 66 विषयों पर कानून बनाने की शक्ति प्रदान करके एक एकात्मक व्यक्ति को संशोधित करती है (जिसमें उन विषयों पर राज्य सरकारें कानून बना सकती हैं)। इसके अलावा, सभी राज्य के मनी बिलों को इसके अनुमोदन के लिए संसद में भेजा जाता है।

आपातकाल के दौरान, लोकसभा का कार्य क्रमिक रूप से एक वर्ष तक के अंतराल तक बढ़ाया जा सकता है, लेकिन आपातकाल स्थिति को रद्द करने के छह महीने बाद भी नहीं किया जा सकता है।

State Emergency Under Article 356

A state emergency is declared on failure of constitutional machinery in a state. Every state in India except two states, Chhattisgarh and Telangana has been under a state of emergency at some point of time or the other. The state of emergency is commonly known as 'President's Rule'.

If the President is satisfied, based on the report of the Governor of the concerned state or from other sources, that the governance in a state cannot be carried out according to the provisions in the Constitution, he may declare an emergency in the state. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within a period of two months.

It is imposed for an initial period of six months and can last for a maximum period of three years with repeated parliamentary approval every six months. The 42nd amendment act of 1976 extended the initial time duration of state emergency from 6 months to 1 year. Subsequently, 44th CAA 1978 restored the 1-year period back to 6 months. Originally, the maximum period of operation of state emergency was 3 years. This 3-year period was divided into 1 year of ordinary period and 2 years of extra ordinary period for which certain conditions are to be fulfilled. Therefore, from now on after every 1 year Parliament needs to approve the same. If the emergency has to be extended for more than three years, it can only be done by a constitutional amendment, as has happened in Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.

During such an emergency, the President can take over the entire work of the executive, and the Governor administers the state in the name of the President. the Legislative Assembly can be dissolved or may remain in suspended animation. The Parliament makes laws on the 66 subjects of the state list. All money bills have to be referred to the Parliament for approval. In this occasion ministers of state legislature do not perform actions in state.

अनुच्छेद 356 के तहत राज्य आपातकाल

किसी राज्य में संवैधानिक मशीनरी की विफलता पर राज्य की आपात स्थिति घोषित की जाती है। दो राज्यों, छत्तीसगढ़ और तेलंगाना को छोड़कर भारत में हर राज्य कुछ समय या दूसरे समय में आपात स्थिति की स्थिति में रहा है। आपातकाल की स्थिति को आमतौर पर 'राष्ट्रपति का नियम' कहा जाता है

अगर संबंधित राज्य के राज्यपाल या अन्य स्रोतों से राज्यपाल की रिपोर्ट के आधार पर राष्ट्रपति संतुष्ट हो जाते हैं, तो संविधान के प्रावधानों के अनुसार राज्य में शासन नहीं किया जा सकता है, तो वह राज्य में आपातकाल घोषित कर सकते हैं। इस तरह की आपात स्थिति दो महीने की अवधि के भीतर संसद द्वारा अनुमोदित होनी चाहिए

इसे छः महीने की प्रारंभिक अवधि के लिए लगाया जाता है और दो छः महीनों में बार-बार दोबारा संसदीय अनुमोदन के साथ अधिकतम तीन वर्षों तक रह सकता है। 1 9 76 का 42 वां संशोधन अधिनियम राज्य की आपातकाल की प्रारंभिक समय अवधि 6 माह से 1 वर्ष तक बढ़ाया। इसके बाद, 44 वीं सीएए 1 9 78 ने 1-वर्ष की अवधि 6 माह तक वापस कर दी। मूल रूप से, राज्य आपातकाल की अधिकतम अवधि 3 साल थी। यह 3-वर्ष की अवधि सामान्य अवधि के 1 वर्ष और अतिरिक्त सामान्य अवधि के 2 वर्षों में विभाजित की गई थी जिसके लिए कुछ शर्तों को पूरा किया जाना है। इसलिए, अब हर 1 वर्ष के बाद संसद को उसी को स्वीकार करने की आवश्यकता है यदि आपातकाल को तीन से अधिक वर्षों तक बढ़ाया जाना है, तो यह केवल संवैधानिक संशोधन द्वारा किया जा सकता है, जैसे पंजाब और जम्मू और कश्मीर में हुआ है।

इस तरह की आपात स्थिति के दौरान, राष्ट्रपति कार्यकारी के पूरे काम को पूरा कर सकते हैं, और राज्यपाल राष्ट्रपति के नाम पर राज्य का प्रशासन करता है। विधान सभा भंग हो सकती है या निलंबित एनीमेशन में रह सकती है संसद राज्य सूची के 66 विषयों पर कानून बनाता है। सभी धन बिलों को स्वीकृति के लिए संसद में भेजा जाना चाहिए। इस अवसर पर राज्य विधानसभा के मंत्री राज्य में कार्य नहीं करते हैं।

Financial Emergency Under Article 360

If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared. Such a situation had arisen but was avoided by putting the gold assets of India as collateral for foreign credit.

In case of a financial emergency, the President can reduce the salaries of all government officials, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. All money bills passed by the State legislatures are submitted to the President for his approval. He can direct the state to observe certain principles (economy measures) relating to financial matters; but fundamental rights cannot be suspended.

अनुच्छेद 360 के तहत वित्तीय आपातकाल

अगर राष्ट्रपति संतुष्ट है कि आर्थिक स्थिति है जिसमें आर्थिक स्थिरता या भारत का श्रेय दिया जाता है, तो वह वित्तीय आपातकाल घोषित कर सकता है इस तरह की आपात स्थिति को दो महीने के भीतर संसद द्वारा अनुमोदित किया जाना चाहिए। यह घोषित नहीं किया गया है ऐसी स्थिति पैदा हुई थी, लेकिन विदेशी क्रेडिट के लिए संपार्श्विक के रूप में भारत की सोने की परिसंपत्तियां डालकर बचा गया था।

वित्तीय आपात स्थिति के मामले में, राष्ट्रपति सभी सरकारी अधिकारियों के वेतन को कम कर सकते हैं, जिनमें सर्वोच्च न्यायालय और उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीश शामिल हैं। राज्य विधायिकाओं द्वारा पारित सभी धन बिल राष्ट्रपति को उनकी स्वीकृति के लिए प्रस्तुत किए जाते हैं। वह राज्य को वित्तीय मामलों से संबंधित कुछ सिद्धांतों (अर्थव्यवस्था उपायों) को ध्यान में रख सकते हैं; लेकिन मौलिक अधिकारों को निलंबित नहीं किया जा सकता है।

4. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)

(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)

(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer A

5. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K.

(B) the U.S.A.

(C) Australia

(D) Canada

Answer B

This list of largest universities by enrollment in the world includes total active enrollment across all campuses, as well as off-campus study. The enrollment numbers listed are the sum of undergraduate and graduate students in active enrollment.

Rank	Institution	Location	Founded	Affiliation	Enrollment
1	Indira Gandhi National Open University	Delhi, India	1985	Public	4,000,000+
2	California Community Colleges System	California, United States	1967	Public	2,100,000
3	National University, Bangladesh	Gazipur, Bangladesh	1992	Public	2,097,182
4	Anadolu University	Eskisehir, Turkey	1958	Public	1,974,343
5	Islamic Azad University	Iran	1982	Private	1,500,000
6	Allama Iqbal Open University	Islamabad, ICT, Pakistan	1974	Public	1,326,948
7	Payame Noor University	Tehran, Iran	1987	Public	800,000
8	Bangladesh Open University	Gazipur, Bangladesh	1992	Public	650,000
9	Universitas Terbuka	Jakarta, Indonesia	1984	Public	646,467
10	State University of New York system	New York, United States	1948	Public	606,232

last edited on 19 September 2017, at 01:17.

June 2013

1. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?

(A) OBC students

(B) SC students

(C) ST students

(D) Women students

Answer A

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?

(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.

(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.

(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.

Answer D

3. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):

Statement:
Should India switch over to a two party system?

Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.

(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer C

4. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):

Statement:
Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?

Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents. यह सत्तारूढ़ दल को अपने राजनीतिक विरोधियों के खिलाफ मामूली मामलों को दर्ज करने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करेगा।

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer A

5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.

2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.

4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1,2 and 3

(B) 1,3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Answer D

6. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to

(A) The President

(B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Ministers

Answer C

The Order of precedence of the Republic of India is the protocol list (hierarchy of important positions) in which the functionaries and officials are listed according to their rank and office in the Government of India.
भारत गणराज्य की प्राथमिकता का आदेश प्रोटोकॉल सूची (महत्वपूर्ण पदों की पदानुक्रम) है जिसमें कार्यकर्ताओं और अधिकारियों को भारत सरकार के उनके पद और कार्यालय के अनुसार सूचीबद्ध किया गया है।

Rank	Persons (2017)
1	President (Ram Nath Kovind)
2	Vice-President (Venkaiah Naidu)
3	Prime Minister (Narendra Modi)
4	Governors of States (within their respective States)
5	Former Presidents (Pratibha Patil, Pranab Mukherjee)
5A	Deputy Prime Minister – vacant
6	Chief Justice (Dipak Misra) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Sumitra Mahajan)
7	Cabinet Ministers of the Union Chief Ministers of States (within their respective States) Deputy Chairman of the NITI Aayog (Rajiv Kumar) Former Prime Ministers (Atal Bihari Vajpayee, H. D. Deve Gowda, Manmohan Singh) *Leaders of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (Ghulam Nabi Azad) and the Lok Sabha (vacant)*
7A	Holders of the Bharat Ratna (Amartya Sen, Lata Mangeshkar, C. N. R. Rao, Sachin Tendulkar, Atal Bihari Vajpayee)
8	Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and the High Commissioners of Commonwealth countries accredited to India Chief Ministers of States (when outside their respective States) Governors of States (when outside their respective States)
9	Judges of the Supreme Court of India
9A	Chairman, Union Public Service Commission (David R. Syiemlieh) Chief Election Commissioner (Achal Kumar Jyoti) Comptroller and Auditor General (Rajiv Mehrishi)
10	Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (P. J. Kurien) Deputy Chief Ministers of States Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (M. Thambidurai) Members of the NITI Aayog Ministers of States of the Union
11	Lieutenants Governor of Union Territories (within their respective Union Territories) Attorney General (Kottayan Katankot Venugopal) Cabinet Secretary (Pradeep Kumar Sinha)
12	Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of full General or equivalent rank Chief of the Army Staff (General Bipin Rawat) Chief of the Air Staff (Air Chief Marshal Birender Singh Dhanoa) Chief of the Naval Staff (Admiral Sunil Lamba)
13	Envoys Extraordinary and Ministers Plenipotentiary accredited to India
14	Chief Justices of States Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures (within their respective States)
15	Chief Ministers of Union Territories (within their respective Union Territories) Cabinet Ministers in States (within their respective States) Chief Executive Councillor of Delhi (within their respective Union Territories) Deputy Ministers of the Union
16	Officiating Chiefs of Staff holding the rank of Lieutenant-General or equivalent rank
17	Judges of High Courts, Chairman, Central Administrative Tribunal Chairman, Minorities Commission Chairman, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission
18	Cabinet Ministers in States (outside their respective States) Chairmen and Speakers of State Legislatures (outside their respective States) Chairman, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures (within their respective States) Ministers of State in States (within their respective States) Ministers of Union Territories and Executive Councillors of Delhi (within their respective Union Territories) Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories Chairman of Delhi Metropolitan Council (within their respective Union Territories)
19	Chief Commissioners of Union Territories not having Councils of Ministers (within their respective Union Territories) Deputy Ministers in States (within their respective States) Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories Deputy Chairman of Delhi Metropolitan Council (with in their respective Union Territories)
20	Deputy Chairmen and Deputy Speakers of State Legislatures (outside their respective States) Ministers of State in States (outside their respective State)
21	Members of Parliament
22	Deputy Ministers in States (outside their respective States)
23	Secretaries to Government of India Army Commanders/Vice Chief of the Army Staff or equivalent in other Services Chief Secretaries to State Governments (within their respective States) Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities Commissioner for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Members, Minorities Commission Members, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission Officers of the rank of full General or equivalent rank Secretary, Minorities Commission Secretary, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Commission Secretary to the President Secretary to the Prime Minister Secretary, Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Solicitor General (Ranjit Kumar) Vice-Chairman, Central Administrative Tribunal
24	Lieutenant Generals of the Indian Army Air Marshals of the Indian Air Force Vice Admirals of the Indian Navy
25	Additional Secretaries to Government of India Advocate Generals of States Additional Solicitor Generals Chairman, Tariff Commission Charge Affairs and Acting High Commissioners a pied and adinterim Chief Ministers of Union Territories (outside their respective Union Territories) Chief Executive Councillor of Delhi (outside their respective Union Territories) Chief Secretaries of State Governments (outside their respective States) Deputy Comptroller and Auditor General Deputy Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories Chairman of Delhi Metropolitan Council (outside their respective Union Territories) Deputy Chairman of Delhi Metropolitan Council (outside their respective Union Territories) Director of the Intelligence Bureau (Rajiv Jain) Director, Central Bureau of Investigation Director-General, Border Security Force Director-General, Central Reserve Police Force Lieutenants Governor of Union Territories (outside their respective Union Territories) Members, Central Administrative Tribunal Members, Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission Members, Union Public Service Commission Ministers of Union Territories and Executives Councillors of Delhi Principal Staff Officers of the Armed Forces of the rank of Major General or equivalent rank Speakers of Legislative Assemblies in Union Territories
26	Joint Secretaries to Government of India Major Generals of the Indian Army Rear Admirals of the Indian Navy Air Vice Marshals of the Indian Air Force

September 2013

1. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s)?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad

3. Kashmir University, Srinagar

4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 2 only

(D) 4 only

Answer D

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?

1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.

4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Answer D

3. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?

1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.

2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.

4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Answer D

These voluntary provisions vary from state to state:

(1) Voting rights to MPs and MLAs in these bodies,

(2) Reservation for backward classes,

(3) Financial powers,

(4) Autonomy of the panchayats, and

(5) Devolution of powers to perform functions of the Eleventh Schedule and planning.

4. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
4. निम्नलिखित राज्यों में से कौन सा जनसंख्या का क्षेत्र, जो बहुमत में है, राज्य विधानसभा में सीटों के आरक्षण का लाभ उठाता है?

(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram

(B) Assam and Nagaland

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam

(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

Answer A

5. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Naturalisation

4. Incorporation of territory
1. जन्म
2. वंश
3. प्राकृतिकीकरण

4. क्षेत्र का निगमन

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer D

6. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?

1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.

2. It serves as an advisory body.

3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.

4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer D

December 2013

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?

(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)

(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Answer A
Distance Education Council (DEC) was an organisation based in New Delhi, India responsible for the promotion and coordination of the open university and distance education system and for determination of its standards in India. The Council was constituted under the Indira Gandhi National Open University Act (1985)
In June 2013, University Grants Commission has taken over DEC, by establishing Distance Education Bureau which will govern the distance education programs in India. The UGC has constituted a Committee to examine the pending proposals of programme-wise recognition to the institutions.
In India it is mandatory for all institutions which are offering distance education courses to seek a prior permission from DEC to run any distance education course. Now after the new guidelines formed by UGC, the permission will be taken from Distance Education Bureau.

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?

1. It is an autonomous institution.

2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.

3. It is located in Delhi.

4. It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer B
The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an organisation that assesses and accredits higher education Institutions (HEIs) in India. It is an autonomous body funded by University Grants Commission of Government of India headquartered in Bangalore.

3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction

(B) Appellate Jurisdiction

(C) Original Jurisdiction

(D) Writ Jurisdiction

Answer C

4. Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) There are seven Union Territories in India.

(2) Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies

(3) One Union Territory has a High Court.

(4) One Union Territory is the capital of two States.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer D

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?

(1) The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.

(2) The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.

(3) The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000

(4) It can punish an errant officer गुमराह अधिकारी.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer C

6. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?

(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

(C) CNN and IBN

(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

Answer A

June 2014

1. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?

(A) Chairman

(B) Deputy Chairman

(C) Minister of State of Planning

(D) Member Secretary

Answer B

It is the supreme organ of planning for social and economic development in India. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission. The Deputy Chairman is the de-facto executive head
De facto is used to indicate that something is a particular thing, even though it was not planned or intended to be that thing.

2. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Residuary Powers

Answer C

3. Which of the following are Central Universities?

1. Pondicherry University

2. Vishwa Bharati

3. H.N.B. Garhwal University

4. Kurukshetra University

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer A

4. Consider the statement which Is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).

Statement:
India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.

Arguments:
(i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:

(A) Only argument (i) is strong.

(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer A

5. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?

(A) Assam University

(B) Delhi University

(C) Hyderabad University

(D) Pondicherry University

Answer B
India plans to set up a 'meta-university', a countrywide network for higher education that will allow students the flexibility to design their own curriculum and combine subjects of their choice, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has announced.
The HRD ministry has been in talks with major universities including DU to implement the meta college from the academic session beginning 2012

6. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.

2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.

3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.

4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer C

December 2014

1. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of

(A) Bihar

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Delhi

Answer B

2. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956?

(1) A university established by an Act of Parliament.

(2) A university established by an Act of Legislature.

(3) A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.

(4) An institution which is a deemed to be university.

Select the correct answers from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer C

3. MOOC stands for

(A) Media Online Open Course

(B) Massachusetts Open Online Course

(C) Massive Open Online Course

(D) Myrind Open Online Course

Answer C

4. Which of the following are the tools of good governance?

1. Social Audit

2. Separation of Powers

3. Citizen’s Charter

4. Right to Information

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1, 3 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer A

5. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

(A) Right to Freedom

(B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

(C) Right to Equality

(D) Right against Exploitation

Answer B

6. Which of the following organizations deals with “capacity building programe” on Educational Planning?

(A) NCERT

(B) UGC

(C) NAAC

(D) NUEPA

Answer D

The National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA), established by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India, is a premier organization dealing with capacity building and research in planning and management of education not only in India but also in South Asia

7. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha?

(1) Summoning

(2) Adjournment- sine die

(3) Prorogation

(4) Dissolution
a prorogation is the Continuance of the parliament from one session to another, as an adjournment is a continuation of the session from day to day.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer C

8. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed

(A) 3 months

(B) 6 months

(C) 4 months

(D) 100 days

Answer B

June 2015

1. The session of the parliament is summoned by
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabh
Answer A

2. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on
(A) 21st April
(B) 24th April
(C) 21st June
(D) 7th July
Answer A

3. The South Asia University is situated in the city of
(A) Colombo
(B) Dhaka
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kathmandu
Answer C

4.The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims
a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
c) Capacity building of teachers
d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B) (a), (b) and (c)
(C) (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer B

5.The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about
(A) 8 percent
(B) 12 percent
(C) 19 percent
(D) 23 percent
Answer C

6. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was
(A) 8
(B) 14
(C) 27
(D) 43
Answer D

December 2015

1. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.

(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.

(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer B

In the Twelfth Five Year Plan a new scheme called Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was launched. RUSA seeks to promote equity, access, and excellence in state higher education system. This scheme supports upgrading autonomous colleges to universities, clustering colleges to form a university, setting up of new professional colleges in unserved and underserved areas and providing grant to colleges and universities to help them improve their infrastructure.

2. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are

(a) Religion

(b) Sex

(c) Place of birth

(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer B

3. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?

(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.

(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.

(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.

(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (c)

(B) (a), b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer A

A first-past-the-post (abbreviated as FPTP, 1stP, 1PTP or FPP) voting method is one in which voters indicate on a ballot the candidate of their choice, and the candidate who receives most votes wins. First-past-the-post voting is one of several plurality voting methods. It is a common, but not universal, feature of electoral systems with single-member electoral divisions; in fact, first-past-the-post voting is widely practiced in close to one third of the world's countries. Some notable examples include the United Kingdom, the United States, Canada, India and most of the colonies and protectorates either currently or formerly belonging to these countries.

The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is the Lower house of India's bicameral Parliament, with the Upper house being the Rajya Sabha. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by adult universal suffrage and a first-past-the-post system to represent their respective constituencies, and they hold their seats for five years or until the body is dissolved by the President on the advice of the council of ministers. The house meets in the Lok Sabha Chambers of the Sansad Bhavan in New Delhi.

The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House. Under the current laws, the strength of Lok Sabha is 545, including the two seats reserved for members of the Anglo-Indian community. The total elective membership is distributed among the states in proportion to their population. A total of 131 seats (18.42%) are reserved for representatives of Scheduled Castes (84) and Scheduled Tribes (47). The quorum for the House is 10% of the total membership.

4. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in

(A) the Union List

(B) the State List

(C) the Concurrent List

(D) the Residuary Powers

Answer B

Union List

The Union List or List-I is a list of 100 items (the last item is numbered 97) given in Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India on which Parliament has exclusive power to legislate. The legislative section is divided into three lists: Union List, State List andConcurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland or Australia, residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government.

There are 100 items on the list, of which one is no longer in force. These are:

Defence of India and every part thereof including preparation for defence and all such acts as may be conducive in times of war to its prosecution and after its termination to effective demobilisation.
Naval, militaryand air forces; any other armed forces of the Union.

2A. Deployment of any armed forces of the Union or any other force subject to the control of the Union or any contingent or unit thereof in any State in aid of the civil power; powers, jurisdiction, privileges and liabilities of the members of such forces while on such deployment.

Delimitation of [cantonment] areas, local self-governmentin such areas, the constitution and powers within such areas of cantonment authorities and the regulation of house accommodation (including the control of rents) in such areas.
Naval, militaryand air force works.
Arms, firearms, ammunitionand explosives.
Atomic energyand mineral resources necessary for its production.
Industriesdeclared by Parliament by law to be necessary for the purpose of defence or for the prosecution of war.
Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation.
Preventive detentionfor reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs, or the security of India; persons subjected to such detention.
Foreign affairs; all matters which bring the Union into relation with any foreign country.
Diplomatic, consularand trade representation.
United Nations Organisation.
Participation in international conferences, associations and other bodies and implementing of decisions made thereat.
Entering into treatiesand agreements with foreign countries and implementing of treaties, agreements and conventions with foreign Countries.
Warand peace.
Foreign jurisdiction.
Citizenship, naturalisationand aliens.
Extradition.
Admission into, and emigrationand expulsionfrom, India; passports and visas.
Pilgrimagesto places outside India.
Piraciesand crimes committed on the high seas or in the air; offences against the law of nations committed on land or the high seas or in the air.
Railways.
Highwaysdeclared by or under law made by Parliament to be national highways.
Shippingand navigation on inland waterways, declared by Parliament by law to be national waterways, as regards mechanically propelled vessels; the rule of the road on such waterways
Maritime shipping and navigation, including shipping and navigation on tidal waters; provision of education and training for the mercantile marineand regulation of such education and training provided by States and other agencies.
Lighthouses, including lightships, beacons and other provision for the safety of shipping and aircraft.
Portsdeclared by or under law made by Parliament or existing law to be major ports, including their delimitation, and the constitution and powers of port authorities therein.
Port quarantine, including hospitals connected therewith; seamen’s and marine hospitals.
Airways aircraft and air navigation; provision of aerodromes; regulation and organisation of air traffic, and of aerodromes; provision for aeronautical education and training and regulation of such education and training provided by States and other agencies.
Carriage of passengers and goods by railway, sea or air, or by national waterways in mechanically propelled vessels.
Posts and telegraphs, telephones, wireless, broadcasting and other like forms of communication.
Property of the Union and the revenue therefrom, but as regards property situated in a State subject to legislation by the State, save in so far as Parliament by law otherwise provides.
Courts of wardsfor the estates of Rulers of Indian States.
Public debtof the Union.
Currency, coinageand legal tender; foreign exchange.
Foreign loans.
Reserve Bank of India.
Post Office Savings Bank.
Lotteries organised by the Government of Indiaor the Government of a State.
Tradeand commerce with foreign countries import and export across customs frontiers definition of customs frontiers.
Inter-State trade and commerce.
Incorporation, regulation and winding up of trading Corporations, including banking, insurance and financial corporations but not including Co-operative Societies.
Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, whether trading or not, with objects not confined to one State, but not including universities.
Banking.
Bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notesand other like instruments.
Insurance.
Stock exchangesand futures markets.
Patents, inventions and designs; copyright; trade-marksand merchandise marks.
Establishment of standards of weight and measure.
Establishment of standards of quality for goods to be exported out of India or transported from one State to another.
Industries, the control of which by the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.
Regulation and development of oilfields and mineral oil resources; petroleum and petroleum products; other liquids and substances declared by Parliament by law to be dangerously inflammable.
Regulation of mines and mineral development to the extent to which such regulation and development under the control of the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.
Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil-fields.
Regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys to the extent to which such regulation and development under the control of the Union is declared by Parliament by law to be expedient in the public interest.
Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters.
Manufacture, supply and distribution of salt by Union agencies; regulations and control of manufacture, supply and distribution of salt by other agencies.
Cultivation, manufacture, and sale for export, of opium.
Sanctioning of cinematograph filmsfor exhibition.
Industrial disputes concerning Union employees.
The institutions known at the commencement of this Constitution as the National Library, the Indian Museum, the Imperial War Museum, the Victoria Memorialand the Indian War Memorial, and any other like institution financed by the Government of India wholly or in part and declared by Parliament by law to be an institution of national importance.
The institutions known at the commencement of this Constitution as the Benares Hindu University, the Aligarh Muslim Universityand the Delhi University; the University established in pursuance of Article 371-E; any other institution declared by Parliament by law to be an institution of national importance.
Institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India wholly or in part and declared by Parliament by law to be institutions of national importance.
Union agencies and institutions for –

(a) professional, vocational or technical training, including the training of police officers; or

(b) the promotion of special studies or research; or

(c) scientific or technical assistance in the investigation or detection of crime.

Co-ordination and determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research and scientific and technical institutions.
Ancient and historical monuments and records, and archaeological sites and remains, declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.
The Survey of India, the Geological, Botanical, Zoologicaland AnthropologicalSurveys of India; Meteorological organisations.
Census.
Union public services; all-India services; Union Public Service Commission.
Union Pensions, that is to say, pensions payable by the Government of India or out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Electionsto Parliament, to the Legislatures of States and to the offices of President and Vice-President; the Election Commission.
Salaries and allowances of members of Parliament, the Chairmanand Deputy chairmanof the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.
Powers, privileges and Immunities of each House of Parliamentand of the members and the Committees of each House enforcement of attendance of persons for giving evidence or producing documents before committees of Parliament or commissions appointed by Parliament.
Emoluments, allowances, privileges, and rights in respect of leave of absence, of the President and Governorssalaries and allowances of the Ministers for the Union; the Salaries, allowances, and rights in respect of leave of absence and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General.
Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the States.
Constitution, organisation, jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court(including contempt of such Court), and the fees taken therein persons entitled to practice before the Supreme Court.
Constitution and organisation (including vacations) of the High Courtsexcept provisions as to officers and servants of High Courts; persons entitled to practice before the High Courts.
Extensions of the jurisdiction of a High Court to, and exclusion of the jurisdiction of a High Court from any Union territory.
Extension of the powers and jurisdiction of members of a police force belonging to any Stateto any area outside that State, but not so as to enable the police of one State to exercise powers and jurisdiction in any area outside that State without the consent of the Government of the State in which such area is situated; extension of the powers and jurisdiction of members of a police force belonging to any State to railway areas outside that State.
Inter-state migration; inter-State quarantine.
Taxes on income other than agricultural income.
Duties of customsincluding export duties.
Duties of excise on tobaccoand other goods manufactured or produced in India except –

(a) alcoholic liquors for human consumption

(b) opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs and narcotics;

but including medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol or any substance included in sub-paragraph (b) of this entry.

Corporation tax.
Taxes on the capital value of the assets, exclusive of agricultural land, of individuals and companies; taxes on the capital of companies.
Estate dutyin respect of property other than agricultural land.
Dutiesin respect of succession to property other than agricultural land.
Terminal taxes on goods or passengers, carried by railway, sea or air; taxes on railway fares and freights.
Taxes other than stamp dutieson transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets.
Rates of stamp duty in respect of bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, bills of lading, letters of credit, policies of insurance, transfer of shares, debentures, proxies and receipts.
Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein.

92A. Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers, where such sale or purchase takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.

92B. Taxes on the consignment of goods (whether the consignment is to the person making it or to any other person), where such consignment takes place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce.

92C. Taxes on services.

Offences against laws with respect to any of the matters in this List.
Inquiries, surveys and statistics for the purpose of any of the matters in this List.
Jurisdiction and powers of all courts, except the Supreme Court, with respect to any of the matters in this List admiralty jurisdiction.
Fees in respect of any of the matters in this List, but not including fees taken in any court.
Any other matter not enumerated in List IIor List IIIincluding any tax not mentioned in either of those Lists.

(2)State List

The State List or List-II is a list of 61 items (Initially there were 66 items in the list) in Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The legislative section is divided into three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland or Australia, residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government.

If any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament is competent to enact, or to any provision of an existing law with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List, then, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of such State, or, as the case may be, the existing law, shall prevail and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall, to the extent of the repugnancy, be void. There is an exception to this in cases “where a law made by the Legislature of a State with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List contains any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by Parliament or an existing law with respect to that matter, then, the law so made by the Legislature of such State shall, if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, prevail in that State. Provided that nothing in this clause shall prevent Parliament from enacting at any time any law with respect to the same matter including a law adding to, amending, varying or repealing the law so made by the Legislature of the State.”

Items on the list

The 61 items currently on the list are:

Public order(but not including the use of any naval, military or air force or any other armed force of the Union or of any other force subject to the control of the Union or of any contingent or unit thereof in aid of the civil power).
Police (including railway and village police) subject to the provisions of Entry 2-A ofList-I.
Officers and servants of theHigh Court; procedure in rent and revenue courts; fees taken in all courts except the Supreme Court.
Prisons,reformatories, Borstal institutions and other institutions of a like nature and persons detained therein; arrangements with other States for the use of prisons and other institutions.
Local government, that is to say, the constitution and powers ofmunicipal corporations, improvement trusts, district boards, mining settlement authorities and other local authorities for the purpose of local self–government or village administration.
Public healthand sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries.
Pilgrimages, other than pilgrimages to places outside India.
Intoxicating liquors, that is to say, the production, manufacture, transport, purchase and sale of intoxicating liquors.
Relief for thedisabled and unemployable.
Burialsandburial grounds; cremations and cremation grounds.
Libraries,museumsand other similar institutions controlled or financed by the State; ancient and historical monuments and records other than those declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.
Communications, that is to say, roads, bridges,ferries, and other means of communication not specified inList I; municipal tramways, ropeways, inland waterways and traffic thereon subject to the provisions of List I and List III with regard to such water-ways; vehicles other than mechanically propelled vehicles.
Agriculture, including agricultural education and research; protection against pests and prevention of plant diseases.
Preservation, protection and improvement of stock and prevention of animal diseases; veterinary training and practice.
Pondsand the prevention of cattle trespass.
Water, that is to say,water supplies,irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments, water storage and water power subject to the provisions of Entry 56 of List I.
Land, that is to say, rights in or over land,land tenuresincluding the relation of landlord and tenant, and the collection of rents; transfer and alienation of agricultural land;land improvement and agricultural loans; colonization.
Fisheries.
Courts of wards; subject to the provisions of Entry 34 of List I; encumbered and attached estates.
Regulation of mines and mineral development subject to the provisions of List I with respect to regulation and development under the control of the Union.
Industriessubject to the provisions of Entries 7 and 52 of List I.
Gasandgas-works.
Tradeandcommerce within the State subject to the provisions of Entry 33 of List III.
Production, supply and distribution ofgoodssubject to the provisions of Entry 33 of List III.
Marketsandfairs.
Money-lending andmoney-lenders; relief of agricultural indebtedness.
Innsand inn-keepers.
Incorporation, regulation and winding up of corporations, other than those specified in List I, anduniversities; unincorporated trading, literary, scientific, religious and other societies and associations;co-operative societies.
Theatresanddramatic performances; cinemas subject to the provisions of Entry 60 of List I; sports, entertainments and amusements.
Bettingandgambling.
Works, lands and buildings vested in or in the possession of the State.
Elections to the Legislature of the Statesubject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
Salaries and allowances ofmembers of the legislatureof the State, of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and, if there is a Legislative Council, of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman thereof.
Powers, privileges and immunities of the Legislative Assembly and of the members and the committees thereof and, if there is a Legislative Council, of that Council and of the members and the committees thereof; enforcement of attendance of persons for giving evidence or producing documents before committees of the Legislature of the State.
Salaries and allowances of Ministers for the State.
Statepublic services; State Public Service Commission.
State pensions, that is to say, pensions payable by the State or out of the Consolidated Fund of the State.
Public debtof the State.
Treasure trove.
Land revenue, including the assessment and collection of revenue, the maintenance ofland records, survey for revenue purposes and records of rights, and alienation of revenues.
Taxes onagricultural income.
Dutiesin respect of succession to agricultural land.
Estate dutyin respect of agricultural land.
Taxes on lands and buildings.
Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.
Duties of excise on the following goods manufactured or produced in the State and countervailing duties at the same or lower rates on similar goods manufactured or produced elsewhere in India-

(a) alcoholic liquors for human consumption

(b) opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs and narcotics

but not including medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol or any substance included in sub-paragraph (b) of this entry.

Taxes on the entry of goods into a local area for consumption, use or sale therein.
Taxes on the consumption or sale ofelectricity.
Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other thannewspapers, subject to the provisions of Entry 92-A of List I.
Taxes on advertisements other than advertisements published in the newspapers and advertisements broadcast by radio or television.
Taxes on goods and passengers carried by road or oninland waterways.
Taxes on vehicles, whether mechanically propelled or not, suitable for use on roads, includingtram-carssubject to the provisions of Entry 35 of List III [Concurrent list].
Taxes on animals and boats.
1. olls.
2. Taxes on professions, trades, callings and employments.
3. Capitation taxes.
4. Taxes on luxuries, including taxes on entertainments, amusements, betting and gambling.
5. Rates ofstamp dutyin respect of documents other than those specified in the provisions of List I with regard to rates of stamp duty.
6. Offences against laws with respect to any of the matters in this list.
7. Jurisdiction and powers of all courts, except theSupreme Court, with respect to any of the matters in this list.
8. Fees in respect of any of the matters in this list, but not including fees taken in any court.
(2) Concurrent List

The Concurrent List or List-III (Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47) given in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The legislative section is divided into three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Unlike the federal governments of the United States, Switzerland or Australia, residual powers remain with the Union Government, as with the Canadian federal government.

Uniformity is desirable but not essential on items in the concurrent list. If any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State

Tis repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament is competent to enact, or to any provision of an existing law with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List, then, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of such State, or, as the case may be, the existing law, shall prevail and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall, to the extent of the repugnancy, be void. There is an exception to this in cases “where a law made by the Legislature of a State with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List contains any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by Parliament or an existing law with respect to that matter, then, the law so made by the Legislature of such State shall, if it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, prevail in that State. Provided that nothing in this clause shall prevent Parliament from enacting at any time any law with respect to the same matter including a law adding to, amending, varying or repealing the law so made by the Legislature of the State.

Items on the list.

The 52 items currently on the list are.

Criminal law, including all matters included in theIndian Penal Code at the commencement of this Constitution but excluding offences against laws with respect to any of the matters specified in List I or List II and excluding the use of naval, military or air forces or any other armed forces of the Union in aid of the civil power.
Criminal procedure, including all matters included in theCode of Criminal Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution.
Preventive detentionfor reasons connected with the security of a State, the maintenance of public order, or the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community; persons subjected to such detention.
Removal from oneStateto another State of prisoners, accused persons and persons subjected to preventive detention for reasons specified in Entry 3 of this list.
Marriageand divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy and succession; joint family and partition; all matters in respect of which parties in judicial proceedings were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution subject to their personal law.
Transfer of property other thanagricultural land; registration ofdeeds and documents.
Contractsincluding partnership, agency, contracts of carriage, and other special forms of contracts, but not including contracts relating to agricultural land.
Actionable wrongs.
Bankruptcyand insolvency.
Trustand Trustees.
Administrators – general and official trustees.

11-A. Administration of justice; constitution and Organisation of all courts, except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Evidenceand oaths; recognition of laws, public acts and records, and judicial proceedings.
Civil procedure, including all matters included in the Code of Civil Procedure at the commencement of this Constitution, limitation andarbitration.
Contempt of court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court.
Vagrancy;nomadic and migratory tribes.
Lunacyand mental deficiency, including places for the reception or treatment of lunatics and mental deficients.
Prevention ofcruelty to animals.

17-A. Forests.

17-B. Protection of wild animals and birds.

Adulterationof foodstuffs and other goods.
Drugsand poisons, subject to the provisions of Entry 59 of List I with respect to opium.
Economicand social planning.

20-A. Population control and family planning.

Commercial and industrial monopolies,combinesand trusts.
Trade unions;industrial and labour disputes.
Social securityand social insurance; employment and unemployment.
Welfare of labour includingconditions of work,provident funds, employers’ liability, workmen’s compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.
Education, includingtechnical education, medical education and universities, subject to the provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List I; vocational and technical training of labour.
Legal,medical and other professions.
Reliefand rehabilitation of persons displaced from their original place of residence by reason of the setting up of the Dominions of India and Pakistan.
Charitiesand charitable institutions, charitable and religious endowments and religious institutions.
Prevention of the extension from one State to another of infectious or contagious diseases or pests affecting men, animals or plants.
Vital statisticsincluding registration of births and deaths.
Portsother than those declared by or under law made by Parliament or existing law to be major ports.
Shippingand navigation on inland waterways as regards mechanically propelled vessels, and the rule of the road on such waterways, and the carriage of passengers and goods on inland waterways subject to the provisions of List I with respect to national waterways.
Tradeand commerce in, and the production, supply and distribution of,-

(b) foodstuffs, including edible oilseeds and oils

(c) cattle fodder, including oilcakes and other concentrates

(d) raw cotton, whether ginned or unginned, and cotton seed; and

(e) raw jute.

33-A. Weights and measures except establishment of standards.

Price control.
Mechanically propelled vehiclesincluding the principles on which taxes on such vehicles are to be levied.
Factories.
Boilers.
Electricity.
Newspapers, books andprinting presses.
Archaeological sitesand remains other than those declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance.
Custody, management and disposal of property (including agricultural land) declared by law to be evacuee property.
Acquisition and requisitioning of property.
Recovery in a State of claims in respect of taxes and other public demands, including arrears of land-revenue and sums recoverable as such arrears, arising outside that State.
Stamp dutiesother than duties or fees collected by means of judicial stamps, but not including rates of stamp duty.
Inquiries and statistics for the purposes of any of the matters specified in List II or List III.
Jurisdiction and powers of all courts, except theSupreme Court, with respect to any of the matters in this List.
Fees in respect of any of the matters in this List, but not including fees taken in any court.

5. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(D) not fixed

Answer D

6. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) West Bengal

Answer A

7. NMEICT stands for:

(A) National Mission on Education through ICT

(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT

(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT

(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

Answer A

July 2016

1. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.

(c) Inculcating a value system among students.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer B

2. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (c) only

Answer C

3. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (a), (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer D

4. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog ?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer C

the National Institution for Transforming India, is a Government of India policy think-tank established by the NDA government to replace the Planning Commission which followed the top-down model. The stated aim for NITI Aayog's creation is to foster involvement and participation in the economic policy-making process by the State Governments of India. The emphasis is on bottom-up approach and make the country to move towards cooperative federalism. The Union Government of India announced the formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015, and the first meeting was held on 8 February 2015. The Prime Minister serves as the Ex-official chairman. The governing council consists of all state Chief Ministers, chief ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar, and vice chairman nominated by the Prime Minister. In addition to full members, there are two part-time members and four ex-official members and a chief executive officer. The temporary members are selected from the leading universities and research institutions.

5. The best way for providing value education is through

(A) discussions on scriptural texts

(B) lecture/discourses on values

(C) seminars/symposia on values

(D) mentoring/reflective sessions on values

Answer D

6. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by

(A) The Supreme Court of India

(B) The High Court

(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both

(D) The President of India

Answer A

7. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware” refers to

(A) Information Technology (IT)

(B) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)

(C) Information and Data Technology (IDT)

(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer A

August 2016

1. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi

(B) Central University, Hyderabad

(C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

(D) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

Answer C

2. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?

(a) It supplements formal education.

(b) It reduces the cost of education.

(c) It replaces the formal education.

(d) It enhances access to education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer C

3. Which of the following are statutory bodies?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (b) and (d)

Answer C
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority
The NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC) is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC)

4. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?

(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.

(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

(c) It can amend a money bill.

(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer D
The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provision for 245 members. Most of the members of the House are indirectly elected by state and territorial legislatures using single transferable votes, while the President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services. Members sit for staggered six-year terms, with one third of the members retiring every two years.

The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, is not subject to dissolution. However, the Rajya Sabha, like the Lok Sabha can be prorogued by the President. The Rajya Sabha has equal footing in all areas of legislation with Lok Sabha, except in the area of supply, where the Lok Sabha has overriding powers. In the case of conflicting legislation, a joint sitting of the two houses can be held. However, since the Lok Sabha has twice as many members as the Rajya Sabha, the former would normally hold the greater power. Joint sittings of the Houses of Parliament of India are rare, and in the history of the Republic, only three such joint-sessions have been held; the latest one for the passage of the 2002 Prevention of Terrorism Act.

The Vice-President of India (currently, Venkaiah Naidu) is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who presides over its sessions. The Deputy Chairman, who is elected from amongst the house's members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman. The Rajya Sabha held its first sitting on 13 May 1952.

राज्यसभा या राज्यों की परिषद भारत की संसद के ऊपरी सदन है। राज्यसभा की सदस्यता अधिकतम 250 सदस्यों तक संविधान द्वारा सीमित है, और मौजूदा कानूनों में 245 सदस्यों के लिए प्रावधान है। सदन के अधिकांश सदस्य अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से एकल हस्तांतरणीय वोटों का उपयोग करते हुए राज्य और क्षेत्रीय विधायकों द्वारा निर्वाचित होते हैं, जबकि राष्ट्रपति कला, साहित्य, विज्ञान और सामाजिक सेवाओं में उनके योगदान के लिए 12 सदस्यों को नियुक्त कर सकते हैं। सदस्य छह साल की अवधि के लिए बैठते हैं, जिनमें से एक तिहाई सदस्य दो-दो साल से रिटायर होते हैं।

राज्य सभा निरंतर सत्र में मिलती है, और लोकसभा के विपरीत, संसद के निचले सदन, विघटन के अधीन नहीं है। हालांकि, लोकसभा की तरह राज्यसभा, राष्ट्रपति द्वारा निंदा की जा सकती है। लोकसभा के पास कानून के सभी क्षेत्रों में राज्यसभा का समान स्तर है, सिवाय इसके कि आपूर्ति के क्षेत्र में, जहां लोकसभा के अधिक अधिकार हैं। विवादित कानून के मामले में, दो घरों की एक संयुक्त बैठक आयोजित की जा सकती है। हालांकि, चूंकि लोकसभा राज्यसभा के रूप में दो से ज्यादा सदस्य हैं, इसलिए आम तौर पर पूर्व में अधिक शक्ति होगी। भारत की संसद के सदन की संयुक्त बैठकें दुर्लभ हैं, और गणराज्य के इतिहास में केवल तीन ऐसे संयुक्त सत्र आयोजित किए गए हैं; 2002 आतंकवाद प्रतिबंध अधिनियम के निवारण के लिए नवीनतम एक

भारत के उपराष्ट्रपति (वर्तमान में, वेंकैया नायडू) राज्यसभा के पद के अध्यक्ष हैं, जो अपने सत्रों की अध्यक्षता करते हैं। उपाध्यक्ष, जो सभा के सदस्यों के बीच से चुने गए हैं, अध्यक्ष के अभाव में घर के दिन-प्रतिदिन मामलों का ध्यान रखता है। राज्यसभा की पहली बैठक 13 मई 1 9 52 को हुई।

5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State?

(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.

(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.

(d) He has diplomatic powers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a) only

(B) (a) and (b)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer A

6. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed?

(a) Dismissal of an employee

(b) Supersession of a municipality

(c) Threat to national security

(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
(ए) किसी कर्मचारी की बर्खास्तगी
(बी) एक नगर पालिका के अधिग्रहण
(सी) राष्ट्रीय सुरक्षा को खतरा

(डी) एक छात्र या कर्मचारी के खिलाफ अनुशासनात्मक कार्रवाई

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer C

Jan 2017

1) Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
(ए) वैश्विक पाठ्यक्रम के लिए एक्सपोजर
(बी) शिक्षा में संभ्रांतता को बढ़ावा देना
(सी) उच्च शिक्षा का कमोडिटीकरण
(डी) शिक्षा की लागत में वृद्धि

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) and (d)
(a), (c) and (d)
(b), (c) and (d)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3
Elitism is the belief or attitude that individuals who form an elite—a select group of people with a certain ancestry, intrinsic quality, high intellect, wealth, specialized training, experience, or talents—are more likely to be constructive to society as a whole

2) Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Code:

(A), (B) and (C)
(B), (C) and (D)
(A), (C) and (D)
(A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer: 2

3) The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on

Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
Norms of conduct laid down by a social group
Concern for human values
Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Answer: 3

4) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Code:

(a) and (d)
(b) and (c)
(b), (c) and (d)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

5) Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government
(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) and (d)
(a), (b) and (c)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
(b) and (c)

Answer: 1

Difference between Article 352 and Article 356

Point of difference	Article 352	Article 356
1.Application	In situations of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.	In situation of failure of constitutional machinery in State
2.Effect	No authority to the Centre to suspend the Constitution in a state.	The state legislature ceases to function as it is dissolved.
3.Effect on Fundamental Rights	affects Fundamental Rights	Does not affect Fundamental Rights
4.Centre-State Relationship	the relationship of all the states with the Centre changes	the relationship of only one state where the action is taken changes with the Centre
5.Proclamation	Approved by the Parliament within 1 month and thereafter every 6 months and there is no maximum duration prescribed	Approved by the Parliament within 2 months and thereafter every 6 months, and the maximum period that it remains in force is 3 years.

Difference between Article 358 and Article 359

In the case of Makhan Singh v. State of Punjab, hon'ble Supreme Court distinguished between Articles 358 and 359 as below:

Article 358	Article 359
Freedoms given by Article 19 are suspended automatically under this Article as soon as the emergency is proclaimed.	Fundamental rights are not suspended automatically it has to be done by a presidential order. Only the courts cannot be moved to enforce fundamental rights.
Article 19 is suspended for the whole period of emergency.	Right to move courts is suspended for the period of emergency or until the proclamation of the president to remove suspension of fundamental right.
Effective all over the country.	May be confined to an area.
It operates only in case of emergency on the ground of threat to the security of the country because of war or external aggression.	It operates in any emergency proclaimed under Article 352

6) Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold (s) office during good behavior?

(a) Governor of a state
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) only
(c) Only
(a) and (c)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

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ARTICLE	DEALS WITH
1	Name and Territory of Union
3	New States Formation, Alteration of Boundaries etc.
13	Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights
14	Equality before Law (popularly known as Right to Equality)
15	Prohibition of Discrimination (on basis of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth)
16	Equality in case of Public Employment
17	Abolition of Untouchability
18	Abolition of Titles
19	Protection of Certain Rights to Freedom (popularly known as Right to Freedom)
19a	Freedom of Speech & Expression
19b	Right to Peaceful Assembly
19c	Freedom of Association
19d	Right to Move Freely through India
19e	Freedom of Settlement & Residence
19f	(Omitted as a fundamental right – governed by article 300A.) Right to Own Personal Property.
19g	Freedom to Practise any Profession, Occupation, Trade or Business
21	Right to Life and Personal Liberty
21A	Right to Education
23	Prohibition of Human Trafficking and Forced Labour
24	Prohibition of Child Labour
25	Freedom to Practise & Propagate Religion Freely
29	Protection of Interests of Minorities
32	Remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights including writs
44	Uniform Civil Code
50	Separation of Judiciary from Executive
51	Promotion of International Peace and Security
51A	Fundamental Duties
72	Powers of President to Grant Pardons etc.
76	Attorney-General of India
78	Duties of Prime Minister
85	Sessions of Parliament, Prorogation and Dissolution
93	The Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
100	Voting in Houses
105	Powers, Privileges etc. of Members of Parliament
106	Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament
108	Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament
109-110	Money Bills
112	Budget
123	President’s Power to Promulgate Ordinance while Parliament in Recess
127	Appointment of ad hoc Judges in the Supreme Court
139	Supreme Court’s Powers to Issue Certain Writs
141	Supreme Court’s Law Binding on All Courts
148-149	Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
155	Appointment of Governor
161	Power of Governors to Grant Pardon etc.
165	Advocate-General for the State
167	Duties of Chief Minister
224	Appointment of Additional & Acting Judges in High Courts
224A	Appointment of Retired Judges in High Courts
226	Power of High Courts to issue writs
280	Finance Commission
312	All India Services
324	Election Commission
335	SCs and STs claim to Services and Posts
343	Official Language
352	National Emergency
356	President’s Rule in case of Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States
360	Financial Emergency
368	Power of Parliament to Amend the Constitution
370	Temporary provisions with respect to the state of Jammu and Kashmir

2004 to 2017 MCQs on Higher Education System, Governance, Polity & Administartion

2004 to 2017 Questions:

MCQs on Higher Education System, Governance, Polity & Administartion

December 2004

December 2005

Councils

1. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

2. Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR)

3. Project of History of Indian Science, Philosophy & Culture (PHISPC)

4. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)

5. National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI)

December 2006

Some Important Articles of the Constitution of India

United Nations Development Programme

June 2007

Living Values Education Programme (LVEP)

Human Values Foundation

December 2007

June 2008

December 2008

Transferred Subjects

June 2009

December 2009

June 2010

December 2010

Constitutional Provisions for Judicial Review:

Changing Trends in Judicial Review:

June 2011

December 2011

December 2012

Powers and duties

last edited on 19 September 2017, at 01:17.

June 2013

September 2013

December 2013

June 2014

December 2014

June 2015

December 2015

(2)State List

Items on the list

(2) Concurrent List

Items on the list.

July 2016

August 2016

Difference between Article 352 and Article 356

Difference between Article 358 and Article 359

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